Pre-final outline in Pharm.Care 3

Instruction: use black pen only & strictly no erasure(s) and no alteration(s). cheating is prohibited
Test I: True or False ( on the space provided before the numbered item, write C if you think the underline word/words in the statement is correct; and W if the statement is wrong and support it by writing your answer on the space provided for after the sentence. 2 points @. there are 15 questions.
for example:
_____1. Communication is a complex function, it is the heart of of all our activities. If we are to succeed in achieving our objectives, we must communicate
Sensitively and effectively.________________.

Test II. Modified Selection : Below are choices for the questions asked in the numbered item .write only the letter which you think is correct on the space provided for before the number. (capital letter only). Letters can be repeatedly used.
Choices:PLEASE MAKE AN OUTLINE OF ALL THESE ENUMERATED ITEMS
A. WAYS OF ESTABLISHING A HELPING RELATIONSHIP
B. SUMMARY OF EFFECTIVE INTERPERSONAL SKILLS
C. WHAT IS IN STORE FOR PATIENTS IN THE FUTURE
D. CLEAR GUIDELINES
E. PROCESS FOR DEALING WITH EMOTIONAL SITUATION AND CONFLICT
F. CONFLICT MANAGEMENT SKILLS
G. PROCESSESS THAT SUPPORT GOOD INTERPERSONAL COMMUNICATION SKILLS.

EXAMPLE:
____1. Counseling
_
Test III: multiple choice: encircle only the letter of your choice.
1. A clear guidelines is
a. asserting your stance b. organize idea c. both d. nota
Test IV: Reading comprehension/ Identify the pharmacist care skills. Write your answer on the space provided for after the paragraph.
1. Students need to have their problem-solving skills in a wide variety of practice settings. Finding good sites is a challenge for every US school. Students must move beyond the dispensing role. Detecting and solving drug-related problems efficiently takes a lot of practice.______________________________________________________________________________

GOODLUCK!!!

PRE-FINAL HEALTH ETHICS OUTLINE

Test I: Modified Selection: below from A-J are Ten of the most Dangerous Drugs and items from 1-20 are some of the examples of the dangerous drugs asked .write only the letter which you think is correct on the space provided for before the number. (capital letter only). Letters can be repeatedly used.
Choices:
A. Heroin F. Tobacco
B. Cocaine G. buprenorphine
C. Barbiturates H. Benzodiazepine
D. Street methadone I. Amphetamine
E. Alcohol J. Ketamine
_____1. Sleeping pupils

Test II: Multiple choice: encircle the letter of your choice.
1. A powerfully addictive central nervous system stimulant that is snorted, injected, or smoked.
a. Heroin b. cocaine c. barbiturates

Test III: Matching Type: match the stages of human development in Column A with the behavior of the fetus in Column B. write only the letter of your choice in capital letter before the numbered item.
EX. WEEK 1,2,4,36,6,7,9,28.10, 31 AND 10 MORE WEEKS....

TEST IV: IDENTIFICATION: WRITE THE COMPLETE ANSWER TO THE FOLLOWING TERMS ON THE SPACE PROVIDED FOR.
1. A medical procedure to terminate a pregnancy
2. This methods involves taking two tablets, one two days after the other.
3. This involves stretching. The cervix open with forceps.
4. This method involves a tube being inserted into the vagina and using suction to remove the embryo
From the uterus.
5. Fine imposed on pharmacist who shall dispense any abortive drugs.
6. The penalty of prison correctional in its minimum and medium period
7 What is article 259 of the civil code
8. What is article 258 of the civil code
9. What is article 257 off the civil code
10. Percentage survey result on “ if abortion should be made a readily available choice
11. Percentage survey result for those undecided if abortion shpuld be legalized
12. Percentage result on question if “ abortion should be legalized.
13. Second trimester ends
14. Baby’s responds to your voice
15. Baby detects light
16. Baby’s bones are fully developed
17. Placenta provides antibodies
18. Baby is full term
19. Fertilization
20. The embryonic period begin


Goodluck!!!!!!

comprehensive review result (mod. 1,2. & , 3)

PHARMACY COMPREHENSIVE REVIEW
LIST OF EXAMINEES
2ND SEM., 2011-2012
EXAMINEE. #
1000 52 28 45
1001 34 52 46
1002 62 33 47
1003 34 30 53
1004 82 67 78
1005 51 54 56
1006 36 81 42
1007 39 43 39
1008 38 41 47
1009 60 47 46
1010 46 48 45
1011 42 71 45
1012 43 55 43
1013 58 53 61
1014 43 79 33
1015 50 42 41
1016 37 43 45
1017 42 41 39
1018 51 51 57
1019 42 76 73
1020 51 43 45
1021 38 52 46
1022 28 70 62
1023 64 68 44
1024 41 39 45
1025 55 59 48
1026 52 75 52
1027 37 43 76
1028 37 34 40
1029 37 49 36
1030 57 88 41
1031 39 52 41
1032 29 42 34
1033 41 78 80
1034 32 72 48
1035 40 77 56
1036 47 65 29
1037
1038 58 64 41
1039 30 36
1040 27 69 76
1041 51 36 47
1042 62 77 49
1043 46 74 35
1044 28 74
1045 45 83 46
1046 54 85 43
1047
1048 31 76 46
1049
1050 40 80 55
1051 35 59 57
1052 66 54
1053 41 51 34
1054 63 92 50
1055 44 77 82
1056 37 69 81
1057 30 64 47



1058 33 34 49
1059 31 43
1060 56 67 36
1061 78 66 57
1062 36 51 48
1063 76 77 75
1064 42 39 40
1065 34 38 51
1066 33 77 57
1067 86 58 45
1068 89 76 66
1069 47 67 62
1070 52 47 48
1071 37 75 55
1072 57 95 49
1073 69 50 48















PHARMACY COMPREHENSIVE REVIEW

Comprehensive Review Take Home Exam

please print and encircle the letter which you think is correct.
PHARMACOLOGY PRE-TEST
1. What is the mechanism of action of erythromycin?
a. inhibit protein synthesis c. inhibit the synthesis of bacterial cell wall
b. prevent PABA to form folic acid d. alter cell membrane permeability
2. What is the mechanism of action of nystatin?
a. inhibit protein synthesis c. inhibit ergosterol function
b. inhibit cell wall synthesis d. inhibit protease
3. What is the mechanism of action of isoniazid:
a. inhibit protein synthesis c. inhibit ergosterol function
b. inhibit viral polymerase d. inhibit mycolic acid synthesis
4. What is the therapeutic classification of Niclosamide:
a. antibiotic c. anthelmintic agent
b. antiprotozoal agent d. antiviral agent
5. What is the therapeutic classification of Quinine?
a. antituberculotic agent c. antileprotic agent
b. antimalarial agent d. antistreptococcal agent
6. A patient is being treated with chloramphenicol. Which alteration in warfarin dosage is indicated?
a. a decrease because its metabolism has been inhibited
b. a decrease because its excretion has been reduced
c. an increase because its GIT absorption has been impaired
d. an increase because its metabolism has been stimulated
7. Displacement of a drug from plasma binding sites would usually be expected to:
a. decrease tissue levels of the drug
b. increase tissue levels of the drug
c. decrease the volume of distribution of the drug
d. decrease the metabolism of the drug
8. Which steroid is widely used in cancer management?
a. prednisolone b. prednisone c. both d. none of the above
9. Which of the following is/are the effect/s of morphine:
a. respiratory depression b. analgesia c. pin-point pupils d. AOTA
10. Which of the following is a long-acting anti-diabetic agent:
a. Crystalline Zinc Insulin c. Lente Insulin
b. Semi-lente insulin suspension d. Ultralente insulin
11. Which of the following is/are antidote/s for morphine poisoning:
a. naloxone b. naltrexone c.both a&b d. NOTA
12. The following effect/s of histamines are mediated through H2 receptors, EXCEPT:
a. release of catecholamines from adrenal medulla c. cardiac stimulation (in guinea pigs)
b. increased capillary permeability d. increased gastric secretion
13. An antiviral drug used for parkinsonism which releases dopamine from storage vesicles:
a. amantidine b. selegiline c. levodopa d. pergolide
14. Isoniazid may produce peripheral neuropathy which can be prevented by the administration of:
a. Niacin b. Pyridoxine c. Cyanocobalamin d. Folate
15. A Phenobarbital derivative which is used in combination therapy for certain types of epilepsy:
a. Pentothal b. Carbamazepine c. Primidone d. Phenytoin
16. Which of the following agents should not be given to neonates?
a. Cephalexin b. Ampicillin c. Erythromycin d. Sulfamethoxazole
17. The trophic hormone that controls thyroid function is _______:
a. TSH b. T4 c. T3 d. all of the above
18. Which of the following penicillins is penicillinase-resistant?
a. Ampicillin b. Amoxicillin c. Piperacillin d. Cloxacillin
19. Aminophylline is a salt of which of the following agents?
a. Theophylline b. Doxofylline c. Pentoxyfylline d. caffeine
20. Inhibition of carbonic anhydrase enzyme may be therapeutically useful for which of the following purposes?
I. Induce diuresis III. To treat glaucoma
II. To prevent acute mountain sickness
a. I only d. III only
b. I and III e. I, II, and III
c. II and III
21. The drug of choice for status epilepticus in children:
a. Phenobarbital c. Lorazepam
b. Diazepam d. Phenytoin
22. Among the following, which is the primary action of heparin responsible for its anticoagulant effect?
a. decreased prothrombin formation in the liver c. activation of plasma antithrombin III
b. decreased formation of fibrinogen d. decreased aggregation of platelets
23. Which of the following is/are considered as uricosuric agents?
I. Penicillimane III. Sulfinpyrazone
II. Probenecid
a. I only d. III only
b. I and III e. I, II, and III
c. II and III
24. Which of the following drugs inhibits the enzyme cyclooxygenase?
a. Aspirin b. Phenelzine c. Captopril d. Morphine
25. Which of the following drugs primarily act on the on the ascending limb of the loop of Henle to produce a diuretic effect?
I. Bumetanide III. Acetazolamide
II. Furosemide
a. I only b. I and II c. II and III d. III only e. I, II, and III
26. Which of the following is an estrogenic component of oral contraceptives?
I. Ethinyl estradiol III. Norethindrone
II. Norgestrel
a. I only b. I and II c. II and III d. III only e. I, II, and III
27. Which of the following conditions is characterized by a Vitamin B12 deficiency state?
I. Pernicious anemia III. Hepatitis
II. Hemolytic anemia
a. I only b. I and II c. II and III d. III only
e. IIII
28. Which of the following is/are fat soluble vitamins?
I. Ascorbic acid III. Ergocalciferol
II. Phytonadione
a. I only b. I and II c. II and III d. III only
e. I,II, III
29. Which of the following is/are clinical uses of Chloroquine?
I. Anti-inflammatory agent III. Anti-epileptic
II. Anti-malarial
a. I only b. I and II c. II and III d. III only
e. I,II,III
30. Which of the following tends to cause black, tarry stools?
a. magnesium sulfate d. ferrous sulfate
b. magnesium hydroxide e. castor oil
c. calcium bicarbonate
31. Which of the following is/are actions of Oxytocin?
I. Water reabsorption in the distal tubules of the nephron III. Increase strength of uterine contraction
II. Constriction of coronary blood vessels
a. I only b. I and II c. II and III d. III only
e. I, II,& III
32. Which of the following is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor?
a. Spironolactone b. Acetazolamide c. Furosemide d. Indapamide
33. Which of the following anti-TB drugs is not given to children below 6 years old due to its optic neuritis side effect?
a. PZA b. Ethambutol c. Rifampicin c. Streptomycin e. Isoniazid
34. Which of the following is an antidote for heparin overdosage
a. Phytonadione/Vitamin K b. Protamine sulfate c. BAL d. Activated charcoal
35. Which of the following is a K+-H+-ATPase pump inhibitor
a. Ranitidine b. Misoprostol c. Lansoprazole d. Pirenzepine
36. Which of the following is a non-selective beta antagonist, it blocks both beta 1 and beta 2 receptors:
a. atenolol b. propranolol c. acebutolol d. metoprolol
37. Which of the following drugs produce/s reflex increase in sympathetic activity and tachycardia as side effects?
I. Nitroglycerin III. Minoxidil
II. Hydralazine
a. I only b. I and II c. II and III d. III only
e. I, II,& III
38. Which of the following drugs can be used effectively to alleviate postpartum breast engorgement in patients who are breastfeeding their infants?
a. oxytocin d. vasopressin
b. estrogen e. ergonovine
c. progesterone
39. Which of the following insulin preparation can be given IV?
I. Isophane Insulin III. Regular insulin
II. Ultralente insulin
a. I only b. I and II c. II and III d. III only
e. I, II, and III
40. Megaloblastic anemia can develop as consequence of prolonged therapy with which of the following?
I. Phenytoin III. Phenobarbital
II. Primidone
a. I only b. I and II c. II and III d. III only e. I, II, and III
41. By what route of administration is the systemic side effects of corticosteroids expected to be reduced?
a. IV b. oral c. inhalation d. subcutaneous e. rectal
42. Toxicity lithium salt is enhanced by thiazide diuretics due to _____
a. Depletion of sodium ions c. Increased solubility of lithium salts
b. Depletion of potassium ions d. direct drug interaction
43. Which of the following drugs may cause an increase in the anticoagulant effect of warfarin?
a. acute alcohol intoxication d. chronic alcohol ingestion
b. griseofulvin e. glutethimide
c. rifampicin
44. Which of the following is the richest source of vitamin K?
a. green leafy vegetables c. citrus fruits
b. organ meats d. rice polishings
45. What is the most specific drug therapy for neostigmine-induced diarrhea?
a. methysergide d. calcium carbonate
b. cholestyramine e. kaolin with pectin
c. tincture of belladonna
46. Which of the following is/are useful treatment/s of carbon monoxide poisoning?
I . 100% oxygen III. Oxygen + Helium
I. hyperbaric oxygen
a. I only b. I and II c. II and III d. III only e. I, II, and III
47. Metabolic acidosis is a limiting complication in the use of which of the following diuretics?
a. hydrochlorothiazide d. acetazolamide
b. mannitol e. ethacrynic acid
c. furosemide
48. Metabolic alkalosis is likely to enhance digitalis toxicity because it is often associated with:
a. Hypokalemia d. Increased tissue magnesium
b. Hypovolemia e. Increased tissue potassium
c. Hypermagnesemia
49. For the emergency treatment of anaphylactic shock, one should administer:
a. aminophylline d. disodium chromoglycate
b. diphenhydramine e. isoproterenol
c. epinephrine
50. Which of the following is a fibronolytic drug
a. Streptomycin b. Streptokinase c. Sulfinpyrazone d. Aspirin
51. Which of the following is/are pharmacologic action/s of calcium channel blockers?
I. Vasodilation due to the blockade of calcium and reduction of intracellular calcium
II. Decrease coronary vascular resistance
III. Increase coronary blood flow
a. I only b. I and II c. II and III d. III only e. I, II, and III
52. Which of the following effects is/are consistent with the systemic use of the drug Clonidine?
Initial transient increase in blood pressure
“First-dose” phenomenon
Lowering of the blood pressure
a. I only
b. I and II
c. III only d. I and III
e. I, II, and III

53. In terms of mechanism of action, which of the following drugs most closely resembles that of Clonidine?
a. Phenylephrine
b. Reserpine
c. Guanethidine d. Methyldopa
e. Amlodipine


54. All the known NSAIDs are weak acids. Which of the following drugs is the only exception?
a. Piroxicam
b. Sulindac
c. Nabumetone d. Ketorolac
e. Tolmetin

55. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Mefenamic acid, a popular NSAID?
I. It is more toxic than Aspirin
II. The drug should not be used for more than 1 week
III. It should not be given to children
a.I only
b.II only
c.I and III e. II and III
d. I, II, and III

56. What is the most important toxicity associated with Pyrazolone derivatives like Phenylbutazone which necessitated the withdrawal of a number of these drugs from the market?
a. Hepatotoxicity
b. Hematologic toxicities
c. Nephrotoxicity d. Gastric ulceration
e. Stevens-Johnson syndrome

57. Which of the following NSAIDs is most useful as an analgesic and has been used successfully to replace morphine in some situations involving mild to moderate postsurgical pain? When used with an opioid, it may decrease the opioid requirement by as much as 25-50%.
a. Naproxen
b. Ketorolac
c. Tenoxicam d. Diclofenac
e. Mefenamic acid

58. What is the primary advantage of drugs like Celecoxib and Etericoxib?
a. Less incidence of gastric irritation or ulceration
b. Less incidence of nephrotoxicity
c. Less incidence of hematologic toxicities d. Minimal risk of causing worsening of hypertension
e. Less likelihood of inhibiting platelet aggregation

59. A number of drugs classified as specific COX-2 inhibitors like Rofecoxib (Vioxx) have been withdrawn from the market or are marketed with “black box” warning. What is the primary reason for such actions to be taken against these drugs?
a. They are associated with severe agranulocytosis
b. They cause severe irreversible hepatic necrosis
c. They increase the risk of bleeding in patient on warfarin d. They increase the risk of thrombosis and cardiac deaths
e. They cause worsening of DM and hypertension

60. Which of the following agents is currently used as the first-line DMARDs in the management of Rheumatoid Arthritis?
a. Hydroxychloroquine
b. Auranofin
c. Penicillamine d. Azathioprine
e. Methotrexate

compre test questions mod 1 & 2 with answer/s( please review)

COMPREHENSIVE REVIEW: MODULE 1- PHARMACEUTICAL CHEMISTRY
PRE-TEST 1( 40 ITEMS)
SET A: IDENTIFICATION
1. 3RD MOST ABUNDANT ELEMENT ON EARTH CRUST(Al)
2. 2ND MOST ABUNDANT ELEMENT ON EARTH CRUST(Si)
3. MOST ABUNDANT METAL(Al)
4. MOST ABUNDANT ELEMENT & ESSENTIAL OF ALL ON EARTH CRUST(Oxygen)
5. MOST ABUNDANT ELEMENT IN THE UNIVERSE (H)
6. IST ELEMENT PRODUCED ARTIFICIALLY(Technetium)
7. ELEMENT COMMON TO ALL ACIDS(H)
8. ELEMENT PRESENT IN INSULIN(Zn)
9. DISCOVERED OXYGEN AND CALLED IT EMPYREAL AIR(Scheele)
10. DENSIEST ELEMENT IN THE PERIODIC TABLE(Osmium)
11. ARTIFICIAL AIR(20%Oxygen & 80 % Helium)
12. HEAVY WATER(D2O deuterium)
13. SALT FORMING GROUP OF ELEMENTS(halogens)
14. A MEASURE OF THE ACIDITY OF THE SOLUTION( pH)
15. ACID FOUND IN THE STOMACH(HCl)
16. COMPONENT OF HARD WATER(Mg & Ca)
17. MOST ACTIVE OF METALLIC ELEMENTS( Grp.1A, alkali metal)
18. SOFTEST MINERAL KNOWN(talc)
19. RELATIVELY ABUNDANT ELEMENT THAT IS CHEMICALLY ACTIVE IN RESEARCH INVOLVING PHOTOSYNTHESIS(Mg)
20. LAUGHING GAS(N2O, nitrous oxide)
21. ELEMENT THAT APPEARS WIDELY DISTRIBUTED IN NATURE(Oxygen)
22. MOST METALLIC OF THE HALOGENS( Iodine)
23. MOST REACTIVE OF THE ELECTRONEGATIVE ELEMENT(fluorine)
24. ELEMENT THAT OCCURS FREE IN THE ATMOSPHERE(78%)(N)
25. IMPT. ELEMENT IN THE TRANSPORTATION OF OXYGEN BY HEMOGLOBIN.(Iron)
26. CAUSES OF MINAMATA POISONING(Hg)
27. CAUSES OF ITAI ITAI DISEASE IN JAPAN, BELIEVED TO BE CAUSED BY DRINKING WATER CONTAMINATED WITH THIS METAL(CADMIUM)
28. COMMON DISINFECTANT HALOGEN(CHLORINE)
29. ACTIVE COMPONENT OF LUGOL’S SOLUTION(IODINE)
30. GENERIC TERM REFERRING TO VITREOS MATERIALS(GLASS)
31. 2ND MOST ABUNDANT ELEMENT IN THE UNIVERSE(HELIUM)
32. 3RD MOST ABUNDANT ELEMENT IN THE UNIVERSE(OXYGEN)
33. ACTS AS CATALYST FOR THE STORAGE & RELEASE OF IRON.(COPPER)
SET B :MATCHING TYPE CLASSIFICATION( 7 ITEMS)
CHOICES:
ALKALI METALS, ALKALINE EARTH METALS, CHALCOGENS,COINAGE METALS, HALOGENS, INERT GASES,VOLATILE ELEMENTS
INERT GASES,
1. GROUP O (inert gases-He, Ne, Ar, kr, Xe, Rn(Radon)
2. GROUP 1-A(alkali metals- Li, Na, K, rb, Cs, Fr)
3. GROUP II-A ( alkaline earth metals- Be, Mg, Ca, Sr, Ba, Ra(Radium)
4. GROUP VI-A(chalcogens- O, S, Se, Te, Po)
5. GROUP I-B( coinage elements- Cu, Ag, Au)
6. GROUP II-B( volatile elements- Zn, Cd, Hg)
7. GROUP VII-A( Halogens- Fluorine, Cl, Br, I, At (astatine)
PRE-TEST 2( 30 ITEMS)
SET A: MATCHING TYPE
1. CALOMEL (HgCl) A. SODIUM NITRATE
2. MINERAL CHAMELEON(KMnO4) B. POTASSIUM PERMANGANATE
3. CINNABAR (HgS) C. MERCUROUS CHLORIDE
4. PREPARED CHALK (CaCO3 ) D. MERCUROUS SULFIDE
5. CHILE SALT PETER(NaNO3) E. CALCIUM CARBONATE
6. CAUSTIC SODA(NaOH) F. SODIUM HYDROXIDE
7. CAUSTIC POTASH (KOH) G. POTASSIUM HYDROXIDE
8. CHINA CLAY(kaolin) H. KAOLIN
9. ALUMINUM TRIOXIDE(Amphogel) I. AMPHOGEL
10. CALCIUM HYDROXIDE>>> J. SLAKED LIME
11. MAGNESIUM SO4>>>>>> K. EPSOM SALT
12. AMMONIUM CO3 >>> L. BAKER’S AMMONIA
13. AL ACETATE SOL>>>>. M. BURROW’S SOL.
14. POTASSIUM NITRATE>>> N. SALT PRUNELLE
15. ZINC SULFATE ( white) O. OIL OF VITRIOL
16. FERROUS SULFATE(Green) P. BLUE VITRIOL
17. SULFURIC ACID(OIL OF VITRIOL Q. WHITE VITRIOL
18. COPPER SULFATE(blue) R. GREEN VITRIOL
19. AGUA REGIA (t) S. SALITRE
20. SODIUM NITRITE(salitre) T. SOLUTION OF HCl & HNO3
SET B: MATCHING TYPE OF USES:
1. SILVER NITRATE >>> A. WET DRESSING FOR 3RD DEGREE BURN
2. SULFURATED POTASH>> B. ANTIMICROBIAL IN WHITE LOTION
3. EPSOM SALT >>> C. USED AS ANTICONVULSANT
4. FERRIC OXIDE >> D. INGREDIENT IN CALAMINE LOTION
5. SELENIUM >>> E. IMPT. MINERAL IN VIT. E AS
ANTIOXIDANT
6. CHROMIUM >>> F. USED AS GLUCOSE TOLERANCE
FACTOR
7. BAL >>> G. ACTS AS ANTIDOTE
8. CARBON>>> H. USED IN THE TX OF DIARRHEA
9. ZINC OXIDE>>>> I. ASTRINGENT & PROTECTANT IN
OINTMENT
10. LITHIUM CARBONATE>> J. USED IN TX FOR MENTAL AILMENT
PRE-TEST 3: (100 ITEMS)
NAME ALL THE ELEMENTS THAT BELONG TO EACH GROUP:
1. ALKALI METALS(6)(Li, Na, K, Rb,Cs, Fr)
2. ALKALINE EARTH METALS(6)(Be, Mg, Ca, Sr,Ba, Ra)
3. NON-METALS(10)(B, C, N, O, Si, P, S, As, Se, Te)
4. HALOGENS(5)( F, Cl, Br, I, At)
5. NOBLE GAS (6)( He, Ne, Ar, Kr, Xe, Rn)
6. LANTHANIDE SERIES (14)(
7. ACTINIDE SERIES (13)
8. TRANSITION METALS (40)
9. OTHER METALS (14)
Vitamins- essential in small amount for the maintenance of normal metabolic forms.
Two groups of vitamins:
1. vit’s ADEK- fat soluble vitamins ( stored for longer time in the body)
2. vitamin C & B- Cmplex – water soluble vitamins ( dissolved and flushed out of the body in the urine)
Vitamins C & E Provitamins beta carotene -are anti oxidant vitamins
Vitamin A- (retinol/ retinoic acid)
Vitamin B- Complex vitamins:
Vitamin B1- ( thiamine)
Vitamin b2- (riboflavin)
Vitamin b3- (Niacin)
Vitamin b4- (choline)
Vitamin b5- (Panthothenic acid)
Vitamin b6- (Pyridoxine)
Vitamin b7 –(biotin)->”vit H”-> for energy metabolism
Vitamin b8 –(inositol)
Vitamin b9- (folic acid)- “Vit M”-> growth factor
Vitamin b10- ( Folacin)
Vitamin B12- ( Cyanocobalamin, PGA pteroyglutamic acid)
Vitamin C (Ascorbic acid)- most unstable of all vitamins
Vitamin D ( Sunshine Vitamin)
D2 (ergosterol)
D3 (Cholecalciferol)
Vitamin E (Alpha-tocopherol)
Vitamin K (phylloquinone)- blood clotting vitamin
Vit. H (Biotin)->B7 -> used in energy metabolism
Vit. F ( Linoleic acid/Lenolenic acid)-> essential fatty acid,used for dietary supplement
Vit. B15 (pangamic acid) -> heart disease prevention
Vit. B17 (amygdalin)-> for cancer treatment
Vit. P (Rutin/Hespiridin/Citrin)-> decrease capillary permeability & fragility
->prevent potential bleeding in areas subject to external pressure






Vitamin generic
descriptor name Vitamer chemical name(s) (list not complete) Deficiency disease


Overdose disease solubility
Vitamin A
Retinol, retinal, and
four carotenoids
including beta carotene
Night-blindness, Hyperkeratosis, and Keratomalacia[19]
Hypervitaminosis A
fat
Vitamin B1
Thiamine
Beriberi, Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome
Drowsiness or muscle relaxation with large doses.[21]
water
Vitamin B2
Riboflavin
Ariboflavinosis
water
Vitamin B3
Niacin, niacinamide
Pellagra
Liver damage (doses > 2g/day)[22] and other problems
water
Vitamin B5
Pantothenic acid
Paresthesia
Diarrhea; possibly nausea and heartburn.[24]
water
Vitamin B6
Pyridoxine, pyridoxamine, pyridoxal
nemia[25] peripheral neuropathy.
Impairment of proprioception, nerve damage (doses > 100 mg/day) Water
Vitamin B7
Biotin
Dermatitis, enteritis
Water
Vitamin B9
Folic acid, folinic acid
Megaloblast and Deficiency during pregnancy is associated with birth defects, such as neural tube defects May mask symptoms of vitamin B12 deficiency; other effects.
Water
Vitamin B12
Cyanocobalamin, hydroxycobalamin, methylcobalamin
Megaloblastic anemia[26]
Acne-like rash [causality is not conclusively established]. Water
Vitamin C
Ascorbic acid
Scurvy
Vitamin C megadosage
Water
Vitamin D
Cholecalciferol
Rickets and Osteomalacia
Hypervitaminosis D
Fat
Vitamin E
Tocopherols, tocotrienols
Deficiency is very rare; mild hemolytic anemia in newborn infants.[28]
ncreased congestive heart failure seen in one large randomized study.[29]
Fat
Vitamin K
phylloquinone, menaquinones
Bleeding diathesis
Increases coagulation in patients taking warfarin.[30]
Fat
Match the following Phil. Medicinal Plants and its Scientific name:
1. DILAU (CURCUMA LONGA) A. CASSIA ALATA
2. SIBUYAS(ALLIUM CEPA) B. JASMINUM SAMBAC
3. BUNGA(ARECA CATECHU) C. ALLIUM SATIVUM
4. KOGON(IMPERATA CYLINDRICA) D. ALOE BARBADENSIS
5. PALAY (ORYZA SATIVA) E. ALLIUM CEPA LINN
6. GABI(COLOCASIA ESCULENTA) F.BRASICA JUNCEA
7. SABILA (ALOE BARBADENSIS) G. BASELLA RUBRA
8. SAGING(MUSA SAPIENTUM) H.IMPERATA CYLINDRICA
9. KATAKA TAKA(KALANCHOE PINNATA) I. DAUCUS CAROTA
10.AKAPULKO(CASSIA ALATA) J. ALLIUM ASCALONICUM
11. SAMPAGUITA(JASMINUM SAMBAC) K. MORINGA OLEIFERA
12. KALACUCHI( PLUMERIA ACUMINATA) L. COLOCASIA ESCULENTA
13. CARROT(DAUCUS CAROTA) M. CURCUMA LONGA
14. ATIS(ANONA SQUAMOSA) N. ANONA SQUAMOSA
15. ALUGBATI(BASELLA RUBRA) O. MUSA SAPIENTUM
16. MALUNGGAY (MORINGA OLEIFERA) P.KALANCHOE PINNATA
17. MUSTASA(BRASICA JUNCEA) Q. ZEA MAYS
18. AJOS(ALLIUM SATIVUM) R. PLUMERIA ACUMINATA
19. SIBUYAS TAGALOG (ALLIUM ASCALONICUM)S. MANIGEFERA INDICA
20. MAIS((ZEA MAYS) T. ARECA CATECHU
21. PINEAPPLE(ANONA COMOSUS) U. COCOS NUCIFERA
22. NIYOG(COCOS NUCIFERA) V. ANONA COMOSUS
23. GUYABANO(ANONA MURICATA) W. TAMARINDUS INDICA
24. AVOCADO(PERSEA AMERICANA) X. PERSEA AMERICANA
25. SAMPALOK(TAMARINDUS INDICUS) Y. ORYZA SATIVA
26. MANGA(MANGIFERA INDICA) Z. ANONA MURICATA
SET B:
1. AMPALAYA(MOMORDICA CHARANTIA A. HIBISCUS ROSASINENSIS
2. PATATAS(SOLANUM TUBEROSUM) B. SOLANUM MELONGENA
3. TABAKO(NICOTIANA TABACUM) C. NICOTIANA TABACUM
4. TALONG(SOLANUM MELONGENA) D. SOLANUM TUBEROSUM
5. GUMAMELA(HIBISCUS ROSASINENSIS) E. MOMORDICA CHARANTIA
6. KAMOTENG KAHOY(MANIHOT ESCULENTA) F. LUFFA ACUTANGULA
7. TSAANG-GUBAT(CARMONA RETUSA) G. IPOMEA AQUATICA
8. LAGUNDI(VITEX NEGUNDO) H. VITEX NEGUNDO
9. KANGKONG(IPOMEAE AQUATICA) I. CARMONA RETUSA
10. PATOLA(LUFFA ACUTANGULA) J. MANIHOT ESCULENTA
SET C:
1. MANSANILYA(CHRYSANTHEMUM INDICUM) A. PTEROCARPUS INDICUS
2. TUBO (SACCHARUM OFFICINARUM) B. CITRUS AURANTIUM
3. MANI(ARACHIS HYPOGAEA) C. CITRUS GRANDES
4. LABANUS( raphanus sativus) D. CITRUS MICROCARPA
5. POINSETTIA(euphorbia pulcherrima) E. MUNTINGIA CALABURA
6. DATILES(muntingia calabura) F. EUPHORBIA PULCHERRIMA
7. KALAMANSI(citrus microcarpa) G. RAPHANUS SATIVUS
8. LUKBAN(citrus grandes) H. ARACHIS HYPOGEAE
9. DAYAP(citrus aurantium) I. SACCHARUM OFFICINARUM
10. NARRA( PTEROCARPUS INDICUS) J. CHRYSANTHEMUM INDICUM
SET D:
1. SALUYOT( CORCHORUS OLITORIUS) A. EUPHORBIA HIRTA LINN
2. TALBOS NG KAMOTE(IPOMEAE BATATAS) B. CHRYSOPHYLLUM CAINITO
3. KULITIS(AMARANTHUS SPINOSUS) C. ACHRAS ZAPOTA
4. DAHON NG SILI(capsicum frutescens) D. CORCHORUS OLITORIUS
5. MALUNGGAY(moringga oleifera) E. AMORANTHUS SPINOSUS
6. BAYABAS(psydium guajava) F. NERIUM INDICUM
7. ADELFA(nerium indicum) G. PSYDIUM GUAJAVA
8. CAIMITO(chrysophyllum cainito) H. IPOMEAE BATATAS
9. CHICO(achras zapota) I. CAPSICUM FRUTESCENS
10. TAWA TAWA(euphorbia hirta linn) J. MORINGA OLEIFERA
SET E
1. LIQUID ANIMAL FATS A. PROSTAGLANDINS
2. SOLID VEGETABLE OIL B. SEED
3. PATHOLOGIC PRODUCT OF SPERM WHALE C. COD LIVER OIL
4. USUAL SOURCE OF FIXED OILS D. ERGOSTEROL
5. USUAL SOURCE OF TANNINS FROM PLANTS E. EMBRYO
6. LIPID METABOLITES FORMED IN THE BODY OF ANIMAL FROM UNSAT. FATTY ACIDS OF THE DIET F. THEOBROMA OIL
7. PRINCIPAL STEROL IN FUNGI G. AMBERGRIS
8. SOLID RESINS FR. TURPENTINE H. BARKS/ STEMS
9. HALLUCINOGEN DERIVED FROM ERGOT I. LSD
10. PLANT PART FROM WHERE THE REFINED OIL IS OBTAINED J. RESIN

SET F: CATEGORIZED THE FOLLOWING:WHICH OF THE FF. DO NOT BELONG TO THE GROUP)
1. HC .VOL. OIL(CUBEBNF, PIPER NF, HUMULUS NF)
2. ALC. VOL . OIL(CARDAMON SEED,CORIANDER NF, ROSE NF
3. ALDEHYDE VOL.( CINNAMON NF, CITRONELLA OIL, LEMON PEEL)
4. KETONE VOL. OIL( SPEARMINT NF, CARAWAY OIL, CEDAR LEAF OIL)
5. PHENOL VOL. OIL(THYME NF, PIMENTA NF, MYRCIA OIL NF)
6. PHENOLIC ETHER VOL. OIL( ANISE NF, FENNEL NF, MYRISTICA NF)
7. OXIDE VOL. OIL(EUCALYPTUS USP,OLEUM CAJUPUTI, CHENOPODIUM)
8. ESTER VOLATILE OIL( LAVANDULA USP, BERGAMOT BLACK, PINE NEEDLE)
9. MISC. VOLATILE OIL( ALLIUM NF, ARNICA NF, MATRICARIA NF)
10. LATEX ( ELASTICA USP, CHICLE, BALATA)
11. BALSAMS( PERUVIAN BALSAM NF)
12. RESINS( JALAP NF, IPOMEA NF, CANNABIS USP)
13. GUM RESINS & OLEO GUM RESINS( GAMBOGE NF, MYRRH, ASAFETIDA NF)
14. TROPANE ALKALOIDS9 BELLADONNA ROOT NF, HYOSCYAMUS, NF)
15. INDOLE ALKALOIDS( CATHARANTHUS, NUX VOMICA)

comprehensive review questions module 1

COMPREHENSIVE REVIEW: MODULE 1- PHARMACEUTICAL CHEMISTRY
PRE-TEST 1( 40 ITEMS)
SET A: IDENTIFICATION
1. 3RD MOST ABUNDANT ELEMENT ON EARTH CRUST
2. 2ND MOST ABUNDANT ELEMENT ON EARTH CRUST
3. MOST ABUNDANT METAL
4. MOST ABUNDANT ELEMENT & ESSENTIAL OF ALL ON
EARTH CRUST
5. MOST ABUNDANT ELEMENT IN THE UNIVERSE
6. IST ELEMENT PRODUCED ARTIFICIALLY
7. ELEMENT COMMON TO ALL ACIDS
8. ELEMENT PRESENT IN INSULIN
9. DISCOVERED OXYGEN AND CALLED IT EMPYREAL AIR
10. DENSIEST ELEMENT IN THE PERIODIC TABLE
11. ARTIFICIAL AIR
12. HEAVY WATER
13. SALT FORMING GROUP OF ELEMENTs
14. A MEASURE OF THE ACIDITY OF THE SOLUTION
15. ACID FOUND IN THE STOMACH
16. COMPONENT OF HARD WATER
17.MOST ACTIVE OF METALLIC ELEMENTS
18. SOFTEST MINERAL KNOWN
19.RELATIVELY ABUNDANT ELEMENT THAT IS CHEMICALLY ACTIVE IN RESEARCH INVOLVING PHOTOSYNTHESIS
20. LAUGHING GAS
21. ELEMENT THAT APPEARS WIDELY DISTRIBUTED IN NATURE
22. MOST METALLIC OF THE HALOGENS
23. MOST REACTIVE OF THE ELECTRONEGATIVE ELEMENT
24. ELEMENT THAT OCCURS FREE IN THE ATMOSPHERE
25. IMPT. ELEMENT IN THE TRANSPORTATION OF OXYGEN BY HEMOGLOBIN.
26. CAUSES OF MINAMATA POISONING
27. CAUSES OF ITAI ITAI DISEASE IN JAPAN, BELIEVED TO BE CAUSED BY DRINKING WATER CONTAMINATED WITH THIS METAL
28. COMMON DISINFECTANT HALOGEN
29. ACTIVE COMPONENT OF LUGOL’S SOLUTION
30. GENERIC TERM REFERRING TO VITREOS MATERIALS
31. 2ND MOST ABUNDANT ELEMENT IN THE UNIVERSE
32. 3RD MOST ABUNDANT ELEMENT IN THE UNIVERSE
33. ACTS AS CATALYST FOR THE STORAGE & RELEASE OF IRON.



SET B :MATCHING TYPE CLASSIFICATION( 7 ITEMS)
CHOICES:
ALKALI METALS, ALKALINE EARTH METALS, CHALCOGENS,COINAGE METALS, HALOGENS, INERT GASES,VOLATILE ELEMENTS
INERT GASES,
1. GROUP O
2. GROUP 1-A(
3. GROUP II-A
4. GROUP VI-A(
5. GROUP I-B
6. GROUP II-B
7. GROUP VII-A

PRE-TEST 2( 30 ITEMS)
SET A: MATCHING TYPE
1. CALOMEL A. SODIUM NITRATE
2. MINERAL CHAMELEON B. POTASSIUM PERMANGANATE
3. CINNABAR C. MERCUROUS CHLORIDE
4. PREPARED CHALK D. MERCUROUS SULFIDE
5. CHILE SALT PETER E. CALCIUM CARBONATE
6. CAUSTIC SODA F. SODIUM HYDROXIDE
7. CAUSTIC POTASH G. POTASSIUM HYDROXIDE
8. CHINA CLAY H. KAOLIN
9. ALUMINUM TRIOXIDE I. AMPHOGEL
10. CALCIUM HYDROXIDE J. SLAKED LIME
11. MAGNESIUM SO4 K. EPSOM SALT
12. AMMONIUM CO3 L. BAKER’S AMMONIA
13. AL ACETATE SOL M. BURROW’S SOL.
14. POTASSIUM NITRATE N. SALT PRUNELLE
15. ZINC SULFATE O. OIL OF VITRIOL
16. FERROUS SULFATE P. BLUE VITRIOL
17. SULFURIC ACID Q. WHITE VITRIOL
18. COPPER SULFATE R. GREEN VITRIOL
19. AGUA REGIA S. SALITRE
20. SODIUM NITRITE T. SOLUTION OF HCl & HNO3

SET B: MATCHING TYPE OF USES:
1. SILVER NITRATE A. WET DRESSING FOR 3RD DEGREE BURN
2. SULFURATED POTASH B. ANTIMICROBIAL IN WHITE LOTION
3. EPSOM SALT C. USED AS ANTICONVULSANT
4. FERRIC OXIDE D. INGREDIENT IN CALAMINE LOTION
5. SELENIUM E. IMPT. MINERAL IN VIT. E AS ANTIOXIDANT
6. CHROMIUM F. USED AS GLUCOSE TOLERANCE FACTOR
7. BAL G. ACTS AS ANTIDOTE
8. CARBON H. USED IN THE TX OF DIARRHEA
9. ZINC OXIDE I. ASTRINGENT & PROTECTANT IN OINTMENT
10. LITHIUM CARBONATE J. USED IN TX FOR MENTAL AILMENT

PRE-TEST 3: (100 ITEMS)
NAME ALL THE ELEMENTS THAT BELONG TO EACH GROUP:
1. ALKALI METALS(6
2. ALKALINE EARTH METALS(6)
3. NON-METALS(10)
4. HALOGENS(5
5. NOBLE GAS (6)
6. LANTHANIDE SERIES (14)
7. ACTINIDE SERIES (13)
8. TRANSITION METALS (40)
9. OTHER METALS (14)

compre test questions Module 2

Match the following Phil. Medicinal Plants and its Scientific name:
1. DILAU (CURCUMA LONGA) A. CASSIA ALATA
2. SIBUYAS(ALLIUM CEPA) B. JASMINUM SAMBAC
3. BUNGA(ARECA CATECHU) C. ALLIUM SATIVUM
4. KOGON(IMPERATA CYLINDRICA) D. ALOE BARBADENSIS
5. PALAY (ORYZA SATIVA) E. ALLIUM CEPA LINN
6. GABI(COLOCASIA ESCULENTA) F.BRASICA JUNCEA
7. SABILA (ALOE BARBADENSIS) G. BASELLA RUBRA
8. SAGING(MUSA SAPIENTUM) H.IMPERATA CYLINDRICA
9. KATAKA TAKA(KALANCHOE PINNATA) I. DAUCUS CAROTA
10.AKAPULKO(CASSIA ALATA) J. ALLIUM ASCALONICUM
11. SAMPAGUITA(JASMINUM SAMBAC) K. MORINGA OLEIFERA
12. KALACUCHI( PLUMERIA ACUMINATA) L. COLOCASIA ESCULENTA
13. CARROT(DAUCUS CAROTA) M. CURCUMA LONGA
14. ATIS(ANONA SQUAMOSA) N. ANONA SQUAMOSA
15. ALUGBATI(BASELLA RUBRA) O. MUSA SAPIENTUM
16. MALUNGGAY (MORINGA OLEIFERA) P.KALANCHOE PINNATA
17. MUSTASA(BRASICA JUNCEA) Q. ZEA MAYS
18. AJOS(ALLIUM SATIVUM) R. PLUMERIA ACUMINATA
19. SIBUYAS TAGALOG (ALLIUM ASCALONICUM) S. MANIGEFERA INDICA
20. MAIS((ZEA MAYS) T. ARECA CATECHU
21. PINEAPPLE(ANONA COMOSUS) U. COCOS NUCIFERA
22. NIYOG(COCOS NUCIFERA) V. ANONA COMOSUS
23. GUYABANO(ANONA MURICATA) W. TAMARINDUS INDICA
24. AVOCADO(PERSEA AMERICANA) X. PERSEA AMERICANA
25. SAMPALOK(TAMARINDUS INDICUS) Y. ORYZA SATIVA
26. MANGA(MANGIFERA INDICA) Z. ANONA MURICATA
SET B:
1. AMPALAYA(MOMORDICA CHARANTIA A. HIBISCUS ROSASINENSIS
2. PATATAS(SOLANUM TUBEROSUM) B. SOLANUM MELONGENA
3. TABAKO(NICOTIANA TABACUM) C. NICOTIANA TABACUM
4. TALONG(SOLANUM MELONGENA) D. SOLANUM TUBEROSUM
5. GUMAMELA(HIBISCUS ROSASINENSIS) E. MOMORDICA CHARANTIA
6. KAMOTENG KAHOY(MANIHOT ESCULENTA) F. LUFFA ACUTANGULA
7. TSAANG-GUBAT(CARMONA RETUSA) G. IPOMEA AQUATICA
8. LAGUNDI(VITEX NEGUNDO) H. VITEX NEGUNDO
9. KANGKONG(IPOMEAE AQUATICA) I. CARMONA RETUSA
10. PATOLA(LUFFA ACUTANGULA) J. MANIHOT ESCULENTA
SET C:
1. MANSANILYA(CHRYSANTHEMUM INDICUM) A. PTEROCARPUS INDICUS
2. TUBO (SACCHARUM OFFICINARUM) B. CITRUS AURANTIUM
3. MANI(ARACHIS HYPOGAEA) C. CITRUS GRANDES
4. LABANUS( raphanus sativus) D. CITRUS MICROCARPA
5. POINSETTIA(euphorbia pulcherrima) E. MUNTINGIA CALABURA
6. DATILES(muntingia calabura) F. EUPHORBIA PULCHERRIMA
7. KALAMANSI(citrus microcarpa) G. RAPHANUS SATIVUS
8. LUKBAN(citrus grandes) H. ARACHIS HYPOGEAE
9. DAYAP(citrus aurantium) I. SACCHARUM OFFICINARUM
10. NARRA( PTEROCARPUS INDICUS) J. CHRYSANTHEMUM INDICUM
SET D:
1. SALUYOT( CORCHORUS OLITORIUS) A. EUPHORBIA HIRTA LINN
2. TALBOS NG KAMOTE(IPOMEAE BATATAS) B. CHRYSOPHYLLUM CAINITO
3. KULITIS(AMARANTHUS SPINOSUS) C. ACHRAS ZAPOTA
4. DAHON NG SILI(capsicum frutescens) D. CORCHORUS OLITORIUS
5. MALUNGGAY(moringga oleifera) E. AMORANTHUS SPINOSUS
6. BAYABAS(psydium guajava) F. NERIUM INDICUM
7. ADELFA(nerium indicum) G. PSYDIUM GUAJAVA
8. CAIMITO(chrysophyllum cainito) H. IPOMEAE BATATAS
9. CHICO(achras zapota) I. CAPSICUM FRUTESCENS
10. TAWA TAWA(euphorbia hirta linn) J. MORINGA OLEIFERA
SET E:
1. LIQUID ANIMAL FATS A. PROSTAGLANDINS
2. SOLID VEGETABLE OIL B. SEED
3. PATHOLOGIC PRODUCT OF SPERM WHALE C. COD LIVER OIL
4. USUAL SOURCE OF FIXED OILS D. ERGOSTEROL
5. USUAL SOURCE OF TANNINS FROM PLANTS E. EMBRYO
6. LIPID METABOLITES FORMED IN THE BODY OF ANIMAL FROM UNSAT. FATTY ACIDS OF THE DIET F. THEOBROMA OIL
7. PRINCIPAL STEROL IN FUNGI G. AMBERGRIS
8. SOLID RESINS FR. TURPENTINE H. BARKS/ STEMS
9. HALLUCINOGEN DERIVED FROM ERGOT I. LSD
10. PLANT PART FROM WHERE THE REFINED OIL IS OBTAINED J. RESIN

SET F: CATEGORIZED THE FOLLOWING:WHICH OF THE FF. DO NOT BELONG TO THE GROUP)
1. HC .VOL. OIL(CUBEBNF, PIPER NF, HUMULUS NF)
2. ALC. VOL . OIL(CARDAMON SEED,CORIANDER NF, ROSE NF
3. ALDEHYDE VOL.( CINNAMON NF, CITRONELLA OIL, LEMON PEEL)
4. KETONE VOL. OIL( SPEARMINT NF, CARAWAY OIL, CEDAR LEAF OIL)
5. PHENOL VOL. OIL(THYME NF, PIMENTA NF, MYRCIA OIL NF)
6. PHENOLIC ETHER VOL. OIL( ANISE NF, FENNEL NF, MYRISTICA NF)
7. OXIDE VOL. OIL(EUCALYPTUS USP,OLEUM CAJUPUTI, CHENOPODIUM)
8. ESTER VOLATILE OIL( LAVANDULA USP, BERGAMOT BLACK, PINE NEEDLE)
9. MISC. VOLATILE OIL( ALLIUM NF, ARNICA NF, MATRICARIA NF)
10. LATEX ( ELASTICA USP, CHICLE, BALATA)
11. BALSAMS( PERUVIAN BALSAM NF)
12. RESINS( JALAP NF, IPOMEA NF, CANNABIS USP)
13. GUM RESINS & OLEO GUM RESINS( GAMBOGE NF, MYRRH, ASAFETIDA NF)
14. TROPANE ALKALOIDS9 BELLADONNA ROOT NF, HYOSCYAMUS, NF)
15. INDOLE ALKALOIDS( CATHARANTHUS, NUX VOMICA)
Two groups of vitamins:
1. vit’s ADEK-
2. vitamin C & B- Cmplex –

Vitamin A-
Vitamin B- Complex vitamins:
Vitamin B1-
Vitamin b2-
Vitamin b3
Vitamin b4-
Vitamin b5
Vitamin b6-
Vitamin b7
Vitamin b8 –
Vitamin b9-
Vitamin b10
Vitamin B12-
Vitamin C
Vitamin D
Vitamin D2
Vitamin D3
Vitamin E
Vitamin K
Vit. H
Vit. F
Vit. B15
Vit. B17
Vit. P
Match the following Phil. Medicinal Plants and its Scientific name:
1. DILAU A. CASSIA ALATA
2. SIBUYAS B. JASMINUM SAMBAC
3. BUNGA C. ALLIUM SATIVUM
4. KOGON D. ALOE BARBADENSIS
5. PALAY E. ALLIUM CEPA LINN
6. GABI F.BRASICA JUNCEA
7. SABILA G. BASELLA RUBRA
8. SAGING H.IMPERATA CYLINDRICA
9. KATAKA TAKA I. DAUCUS CAROTA
10.AKAPULKO J. ALLIUM ASCALONICUM
11. SAMPAGUITA K. MORINGA OLEIFERA
12. KALACUCHI L. COLOCASIA ESCULENTA
13. CARROT M. CURCUMA LONGA
14. ATIS N. ANONA SQUAMOSA
15. ALUGBATI O. MUSA SAPIENTUM
16. MALUNGGAY P.KALANCHOE PINNATA
17. MUSTASA Q. ZEA MAYS
18. AJOS R. PLUMERIA ACUMINATA
19. SIBUYAS TAGALOG S. MANIGEFERA INDICA
20. MAIS T. ARECA CATECHU
21. PINEAPPLE U. COCOS NUCIFERA
22. NIYOG V. ANONA COMOSUS
23. GUYABANO W. TAMARINDUS INDICA
24. AVOCADO X. PERSEA AMERICANA
25. SAMPALOK Y. ORYZA SATIVA
26. MANGA Z. ANONA MURICATA

SET B:
1. AMPALAYA A. HIBISCUS ROSASINENSIS
2. PATATAS B. SOLANUM MELONGENA
3. TABAKO C. NICOTIANA TABACUM
4. TALONG D. SOLANUM TUBEROSUM
5. GUMAMELA E. MOMORDICA CHARANTIA
6. KAMOTENG KAHOY F. LUFFA ACUTANGULA
7. TSAANG-GUBAT G. IPOMEA AQUATICA
8. LAGUNDI H. VITEX NEGUNDO
9. KANGKONG I. CARMONA RETUSA
10. PATOLA J. MANIHOT ESCULENTA
SET C:
1. MANSANILYA A. PTEROCARPUS INDICUS
2. TUBO B. CITRUS AURANTIUM
3. MANI C. CITRUS GRANDES
4. LABANUS D. CITRUS MICROCARPA
5. POINSETTIA E. MUNTINGIA CALABURA
6. DATILES F. EUPHORBIA PULCHERRIMA
7. KALAMANSI G. RAPHANUS SATIVUS
8. LUKBAN H. ARACHIS HYPOGEAE
9. DAYAP I. SACCHARUM OFFICINARUM
10. NARRA J. CHRYSANTHEMUM INDICUM
SET D:
1. SALUYOT A. EUPHORBIA HIRTA LINN
2. TALBOS NG KAMOTE B. CHRYSOPHYLLUM CAINITO
3. KULITIS C. ACHRAS ZAPOTA
4. DAHON NG SILI D. CORCHORUS OLITORIUS
5. MALUNGGAY E. AMORANTHUS SPINOSUS
6. BAYABAS F. NERIUM INDICUM
7. ADELFA G. PSYDIUM GUAJAVA
8. CAIMITO H. IPOMEAE BATATAS
9. CHICO I. CAPSICUM FRUTESCENS
10. TAWA TAWA J. MORINGA OLEIFERA
SET E:
1. LIQUID ANIMAL FATS A. PROSTAGLANDINS
2. SOLID VEGETABLE OIL B. SEED
3. PATHOLOGIC PRODUCT OF SPERM WHALE C. COD LIVER OIL
4. USUAL SOURCE OF FIXED OILS D. ERGOSTEROL
5. USUAL SOURCE OF TANNINS FROM PLANTS E. EMBRYO
6. LIPID METABOLITES FORMED IN THE BODY OF ANIMAL FROM UNSAT. FATTY ACIDS OF THE DIET F. THEOBROMA OIL
7. PRINCIPAL STEROL IN FUNGI G. AMBERGRIS
8. SOLID RESINS FR. TURPENTINE H. BARKS/ STEMS
9. HALLUCINOGEN DERIVED FROM ERGOT I. LSD
10. PLANT PART FROM WHERE THE REFINED OIL IS OBTAINED
J. RESIN

SET F: CATEGORIZED THE FOLLOWING: WHICH OF THE FF. DO NOT BELONG TO THE GROUP)
1. HC .VOL. OIL(CUBEBNF, PIPER NF, HUMULUS NF)
2. ALC. VOL . OIL(CARDAMON SEED,CORIANDER NF, ROSE NF)
3. ALDEHYDE VOL.( CINNAMON NF, CITRONELLA OIL, LEMON PEEL)
4. KETONE VOL. OIL( SPEARMINT NF, CARAWAY OIL, CEDAR LEAF OIL)
5. PHENOL VOL. OIL(THYME NF, PIMENTA NF, MYRCIA OIL NF)
6. PHENOLIC ETHER VOL. OIL( ANISE NF, FENNEL NF, MYRISTICA NF)
7. OXIDE VOL. OIL(EUCALYPTUS USP,OLEUM CAJUPUTI, CHENOPODIUM)
8. ESTER VOLATILE OIL( LAVANDULA USP, BERGAMOT BLACK, PINE NEEDLE)
9. MISC. VOLATILE OIL( ALLIUM NF, ARNICA NF, MATRICARIA NF)
10. LATEX ( ELASTICA USP, CHICLE, BALATA)
11. BALSAMS( PERUVIAN BALSAM NF)
12. RESINS( JALAP NF, IPOMEA NF, CANNABIS USP)
13. GUM RESINS & OLEO GUM RESINS( GAMBOGE NF, MYRRH, ASAFETIDA NF)
14. TROPANE ALKALOIDS (BELLADONNA ROOT NF, HYOSCYAMUS, NF)
15. INDOLE ALKALOIDS( CANTHARANTHUS, NUX VOMICA)

pointers in Pharmaceutical chem 1 lecture

Pharmaceutical Chemistry 1 pointers:
1. groupings of elements in the periodic table
2. most abundant elements in the universe and on earth crust
3. non -metallic elements, metallic elements
4. recall the questions given in previous quizzes. many are repititive questions.
5. common names of the different solutions, reagents...etc....
Goodluck!!!!

pointers in History of Pharmacy

Orientation of Pharmacy outline for Pre-mid exam.

study the following:

1. important events and personalities that contributed to the historical background of Pharmacy.(multiple choice and identification )

2. definitions of the professional subjects. just get the key words..to be included in matching type.

3. enumerate the: ( professional periodicals, non-official compendia, official compendia, classification of periodicals, sources of literature, mission of pharmacy at least two(2), field of internship, etc....)

Goodluck!!!!!

complete list of examinee number of students who will re take summative 1 and 2 on friday April 15, 2011. Please be there at tetuan campus before 9 AM

10014
10024
10044
10054
10064
10084
10011
10021
10031
10041
10051
10061
10091
10111
10121
10141
10151
10171
10181
10191
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compre sample questions

PHARMACEUTICAL REVIEW WITH COMPREHENSIVE EXAMINATION
Summative Exam 2
Instruction: Write the letter corresponding to the best answer on the answer sheet provided. USE ONLY CAPITAL LETTERS and NO ERASURES ON THE ANSWER SHEET

1. Bentonite magma is primarily used as :
A. analgesic B. antacid C. stimulant D. suspending agent
2. Parabens are used in syrups as:
A. preservative B. buffer C. thickener D. sweetener
3. Characteristics of an ideal ointment:
A. all of these answers
B. stable, compatible with common medicaments and easily compounded
C. non-greasy and non-dehydrating
D. non irritating and water removable
4. A 30 mL aliquot was obtained from a mixture of 73% unknown solution. If the sample is diluted to 50mL, what is its final concentration?
A. 43.8% B. 39.4% C. 36.5% D. 20.5%
5. Calculate the number of kilograms of a 20% w/w solution which can be made from a kilogram of solute:
A. 5.0 B. 5000 C. 0.5 D. 50.0
6. Alcohol contained in rubbing alcohol that are properly sold in the market:
A. butyl B. ethyl C. propyl D. isopropyl
7. The only source of Sodium Chloride is in the form of tablets, each containing 3.0g. How many tablets should be used in preparing 3000 liters of a solution of such strength that 20 mL diluted to 100 mL with water will yield a 0.9% w/v solution? (Bonus: Answer – 45000)
A. 60,000 tabs B. 27,000 tabs C. 12,000 tabs D. 9,000 tabs
8. One of the following is not a case of adulterated drugs
A. labels are smeared and dirty
B. substandard material have been added
C. potency of drug is below label claim
D. other active components are added but not stated in the label
9. Tablet is the preferred dosage form because of
A. economy C. stability
B. precision of dosage D. all of these
10. Ringer’s Injection USP contains
1. Sodium chloride 2. Sodium lactate
3. Calcium chloride 4. Potassium chloride
A. 1 and 2
B. 1,2 and 3
C. 1,3 and 4
D. 3 and 4
11. Government office where you obtain a business permit to open a D/S, drug department as a sole proprietor
A. PRC C. BFAD
B. Bureau of Domestic Trade D. SEC
12. One of the following is not used as a flavoring syrup
A. raspberry C. cherry
B. senna D. cocoa
13. Sterilization technique in which the mechanism of action is based on the destruction of reproductive capabilities of the microorganism through lethal mutation
A. gas sterilization C. sterilization by ionizing radiation
B. lyophilization D. sterilization by filtration
14. Uniformity of blending during manufacturing to ensure equal distribution of the actives within a certain period of time is ascertained by
A. calibration C. validation of mixing time
B. weight variation test D. determination of moisture content
15. Manner of approval in which import certificate shall be signed by the Commissioner of Internal Revenue
A. facsimile C. countersigned
B. stamp D. his real original signature
16. In the case of drug recall, the responsibility for the quality of drugs in original sealed containers rests with
A. drug distributors C. drug manufacturers
B. delivery men D. Pharmacist in charge
17. Weak electrolytes are:
A. none of these C. unionized
B. completely ionized D. slightly ionized

18. The abuse of this drug is responsible for major medical and socio economic problems
A. chloral hydrate C. a and d
B. nitrous oxide D. ethanol
19. Poisoning due to anticholinesterase is best managed by the administration of
A. theophylline C. salbutamol
B. atropine D. Nifedipine
20. A selective B1 blocker
A. salbutamol C. metoprolol
B. imipramine D. ethanol
21. Conjunctival and bronchial irritation are the primary symptoms of exposure to
A. ergot C. ethylene
B. sulfur dioxide D. mercury
22. It is a cofactor in enzymatic reaction involved in phosphorylation, cholesterol and fatty acid synthesis
A. mercury C. manganese
B. molybdenum D. nickel
23. It is used in silvering of mirror and it causes metal-like gum
A. cesium C. boron
B. cadmium D. bismuth
24. One of these drugs is a narcotic analgesic
A. meperidine C. paracetamol
B. mefenamic acid D. indomethacin
25. Deferoxamine is an antidote for
A. iron C. calcium
B. methanol D. iodine
26. These are simple asphyxiants which are gases EXCEPT
A. ethyl alcohol C. nitrogen
B. methane D. none of these
27. The permeable factor involved in inflammatory condition is
A. substance P C. receptor
B. enzyme D. endorphin
28. Adverse effects of nitrates is/are
A. dizziness C. headache
B. all of these D. hypertension
29. This does not belong to the parasympathetic nervous system
A. muscarinic receptors C. nicotinic receptors
B. none of these D. alpha receptors
30. This term denotes the usual amount of exposure to a given agent that is deemed safe for a stated period of time
A. bioaccumulation C. none of these
B. risk D. threshold limit value
31. The anti-inflammatory effect of acetylsalicylic acid is due to
A. increased membrane permeability of the inflamed tissue
B. inhibition of the synthesis of prostaglandins
C. an antigen-antibody reaction
D. stimulation of endogenous hydrocortisone production
32. This metal is used in the manufacture of permanent magnets, it enhance foaming qualities of beer
A. cobalt C. magnesium
B. iron D. lead
33. Phenylbutazone is
A. an active metabolite of oxyphenbutazone
B. metabolized to oxyphenbutazone
C. an inactive metabolite oxyphenbutazone
D. excreted unchanged in the urine
34. A type of poison that causes blackening and severe corrosion in the mouth
A. nitric acid C. phenol
B. sulfuric acid D. HCl
35. Escherichia, Klebsiella and Proteus are frequently normal flora of the
A. gastrointestinal tract C. superficial skin surface
B. urinary tract D. respiratory tract
36. It can destroy both vegetative and spore bearing organism
A. incinerator C. autoclave
B. oven D. inspissator
37. The index of refraction of a volatile oil is determined by using
A. spectrophotometer C. refractometer
B. pycnometer D. polarimeter
38. Drug substances that are withheld from distribution until batch certifications from BFAD is actually received
A. antineoplastics C. antibiotics
B. all of these D. vitamins
39. The residue after incineration of a crude drug sample was 0.1152 g and the residue after treatment of the ash with diluted HCl was 0.0651g. The % of silica obtained from 7.8525 g sample is
A. 1.467% C. 0.638%
B. 0.829% D. 2.30%
40. An example of a primary packaging component is
A. bottle C. packer case
B. label D. insert
41. Which of the following gram negative rods is the leading cause of urinary tract infection in otherwise healthy individuals
A. Proteus mirabilis C. Escherichia coli
B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa D. Klebsiella pneumonia
42. What is preferred for standardization of permanganate
A. sodium oxalate C. hydrogen peroxide
B. sodium carbonate D. sodium nitrate
43. Instability will be accelerated by
A. all of these C. heat
B. temperature D. light
44. The most common manifestation of infection in the hospitalized patient
A. fever C. chills
B. cough D. myalgia
45. Plastic containers for ophthalmic or parenteral preparations are sterilized by
A. autoclaving C. ethylene blue
B. soaking in formalin D. microwave
46. Assay of NaCl in table salt by precipitation as AgCl, filtration drying and weighing the residue is classified as
A. precipitimetry C. gravimetric analysis
B. volhard method D. residual precipitimetry
47. Responsible for reducing the release of NE from sympathetic nerves: (bonus)
a. Beta 1 postsynaptic adrenergic receptor
b. Beta 2 postsynaptic adrenergic receptor
c. Alpha 1 postsynaptic adrenergic receptor
d. Alpha 2 postsynaptic adrenergic receptor
e. all
48. Produces competitive antagonism of catecholamine by blockade of alpha 1 receptors:
a. Phenoxybenzamine d. all
b. Phentolamine e. none
c. Ephedrine
49. This may occur when the electrical conduction pathways malfunction:
a. chest pain b. hypertension c. arrhythmias d. MI e. all
50. Placebo may be given:
a. as a control of specific evaluation of drugs
b. to benefit/please a patient not by any pharmacological actions but by psychological means
c. to patients with mild psychological disorders who attribute their symptoms to physical disease
d. all of these
e. none of these
51. A branch of pharmacology that deals with the study of doses:
a. Pharmacy b. Posology c. Toxicology d. Pharmacognosy
52. It refers to the fate of the drug during its sojourn through the body:
a. Pharmacokinetics b. Pharmacodynamics c. Pharmacogenetics d. Pharmacotherapeutics
53. Drugs administered by inhalation are absorbed in the:
a. small intestine b. nasal mucosa c. lungs d. stomach

54. Weak acids are reabsorbed into the bloodstream when:
a. the urinary pH is high c. the urinary pH is low
b. the urine is made alkaline d. all situations apply
55. All of the ff. are catecholamines, EXCEPT:
a. Acetylcholine b. Norepinephrine c. 5HT d. Dopamine

56. Which of the following is an inhibitory amino acid?
a. Glutamate b. Aspartate c. GABA d. none of these

57. The following situations give rise to excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP), EXCEPT:
a. Na+ conductance c. depolarization of the membrane
b. opening of Ca++ion channel d. opening of Cl- ion channel

58. The response characterized by increasing magnitude with greater concentration of unbound drug at the receptor site:
a. “graded” b. quantal c. all-or-none d. margin of safety
59. It refers to the relative concentration required to produce a given magnitude of effect:
a. affinity b. efficacy c. potency d. none of these
60. Interaction of two drugs whose opposing actions in the body tend to cancel each other’s effect:
a. noncompetitive b. chemical c. physiological d. pharmacokinetic
61. The period from the drug administration to the first visible effect is:
a. onset of action c. ceiling effect
b. duration of action d. peak time
62. Parkinson’s disease is due to:
a. excessive cholinergic activity c. deficiency of dopamine level in the brain
b. damage to the basal ganglia d. all of these
63. When MAOi is taken with tyramine containing food it can result to serious consequences such as:
a. hypertensive crisis d. a and b only
b. cerebral stroke e. all
c. insomnia
64. Meclizine is used to prevent nausea and vomiting due to:
a. vertigo b. motion sickness c. either a or b d. neither a nor b
65. Antipsychotic agents reduce hallucinations and agitation by:
a. blocking the reuptake of NE and SE c. ether a or b
b. blocking the dopamine receptors d. neither a nor b
66. Antihistamines can be used clinically as:
a. antiemetic b. sedative c. anti-allergy d. all
67. A drug used to treat chronic alcoholism:
a. Diazepam b. Zolpidem c. Flumazenil d. Disulfiram
68. The following are pharmacological actions of benzodiazepines, EXCEPT:
a. reduction of anxiety b. sedation c. anti-emetics d. anticonvulsants
69. Alcohol can produce the following peripheral effects, EXCEPT:
a. diuresis c. loss of memory
b. dilation of the blood vessels in the skin d. stimulates secretions of gastric juices
70. All of the ff. statements about the extrapyramidal effects of antipsychotics are correct, EXEPT:
a. these are caused by the blockade of the dopamine receptors on the basal ganglia
b. can be counteracted by the administration of anticholinergic
c. if therapy is stopped, tardive dyskinesia occurs
d. haloperidol does not cause extrapyramidal effects
71. Pharmacological effects brought about by dopamine receptor blockade, EXCEPT:
a. stimulation of the vomiting center c. reduce schizophrenic symptoms
b. development of parkinsonian signs d. decrease stimulation of the CTZ
72. Which of the ff. statements is CORRECT about Loperamide?
a. it is used to control diarrhea d. it is an NSAID
b. it has analgesic property e. all
c. it enters the brain
73. Which of the ff. statements is NOT TRUE about paracetamol?
a. it lacks anti-inflammatory property
b. preferred drug to lower elevated body temperature
c. overdose can lead to hepatic injury
d. associated with Reye’s syndrome in children
74. A dissociative anesthetic agent:
a. Thiopental b. Innovar c. Ketamine d. Halothane e. Propofol
75. A drug useful in febrile seizure:
a. Diazepam b. Trimethadione c. Phenobarbital d. Valproic acid
76. A drug that reverses the effects of morphine and heroin by competitively blocking the opioid receptors:
a. methadone b. nalbuphine c. butorphanol d. naloxone
77. It refers to a change of one or more of the pharmacokinetic processes with increasing dose size:
a. disposition b. clinical pharmacokinetics c. dose dependency d. depot phase
78. The cleaning out of stomach by repeated infusion of water using rubber tube is called:
a. gastric lavage b. emesis c. anaphylaxis d. hydration
79. The process with the slowest rate constant in a system of simultaneous kinetic processes:
a. lag time b. rate limiting step c. bioequivalence d. accumulation
80. The measured preparation devised to make possible the administration of medications in prescribed or measured amounts:
a. dose size b. dosage form c. dosage regimen d. drug
81. The sum of all body regions in which the drug concentration is an instantaneous equilibrium with that in blood or plasma:
a. clearance b. accumulatio c. depot phase d. central compartment
82. Loss of drug from the central compartment due to transfer to another compartment:
a. apparent partition coefficient c. disposition
b. biliary recycling d. creatinine clearance
83. The extent of protein binding is determined in vitro by the ff. mechanisms, EXCEPT:
a. ultracentrifugation c. endocytosis
b. dialysis d. electrophoresis
84. A phase I biotransformation reaction, EXCEPT:
a. methylation b. sulfoxidation c. deamination d. hydrolysis
85. A phase II biotransformation, EXCEPT:
a. methylation b. reduction c. acetylation d. conjugation
86. Non-irritating to the larynx and produces bronchiolar dilation:
a. halothane b. nitrous oxide c. desflurane d. isoflurane
87. Commonly used spinal anesthetic that is 10 times more potent than procaine:
a. cocaine b. lidocaine c. tetracaine d. procaine
88. Which of the ff. effects is associated with benzodiazepines?
a. paradoxical excitement c. morphine
b. ataxia d. all of the above
89. Is a potent ultra short-acting non barbiturate hypnotic agent without analgesic properties:
a. diazepam b. etomidate c. morphine d. cocaine
90. It is an important autonomic nervous system center wherein it plays a role in the regulation of body temperature water balance, and metabolism:
a. hypothalamus b. thalamus c. diencephalons d. broca’s area
91. It triggers the ovulation of an egg from the female ovary and causes the ruptured follicle to be converted to a corpus luteum:
a. thyrotropic hormone c. luteinizing hormone
b. prolactin d. follicle-stimulating hormone
92. The standard of comparison for potency of general anesthetic agent is:
a. minimum alveolar concentration c. partition coefficient
b. solubility d. maximum vapor concentration
93. Benzodiazepines are used therapeutically for all of the ff. indications, EXCEPT:
a. panic disorder b. schizophrenia c. status epilepticus d. insomnia
94. Compounds that combine with atmospheric moisture to produce highly acidic rain, snow, air or fog:
A) Carbon dioxide B) Sulfur dioxide C) Nitrogen oxide D) A and B E) B and C

95. It is an aging process in the life cycle of lake, pond or slow moving river and stream brought about by the
accumulation of nutrients needed to sustain aquatic plants and animals accompanied by an increase in the
number of organisms:
A) Acidification B) Alkalinification C) Nitrification D) Eutrophication E) None
96. A drug for treatment of alcoholism, which acts to diminish the pleasurable effects of alcohol:
A) Naltrexone B) Antabuse C) Tranquilizers D) All E) None
97. This is a period between conception through complete delivery of the product of conception:
A) Pregnancy B) Fertilization C) Implantation D) Cleavage E) None
98. A trace mineral necessary for heme synthesis, electron transport and wound healing:
A) Copper B) Manganese C) Chromium D) Zinc E) None
99. It describes the amounts of energy, protein, minerals and vitamins needed by normal healthy individual:
A) RDA B) REA C) RAD D) RAE E) None
100. A type of malnutrition associated with inadequate mastication, digestion, absorption, transport and excretion of
nutrients:
A) Primary malnutrition B) Secondary malnutrition C) Undernutrition D) Overnutrition E) None
101. Deficiency of thiamine leads to:
A) Beri-beri B) Pellagra C) Stomatitis D) A and B E) B and C

102. A short-term expression of alcohol toxicity:
A) Cirrhosis B) Alcoholism C) Hang-over D) A and B E) B and C


103. Vitamin B deficiency caused by alcoholism produces a neurological disorder called:
A) Steven Johnson’s Syndrome D) A and B
B) Down Syndrome E) None
C) Wernicke-Korsakoff Syndrome

104. Regarding the nature of medicinally important viruses, which one of the following statements is least accurate?
A) Poliovirus is a non-enveloped virus with RNA as its genome.
B) Epstein-Barr virus is a non-enveloped virus with RNA as its genome.
C) Hepatitis B is an enveloped virus with RNA as its genome.
D) Influenza virus is an enveloped virus with RNA as its genome.

105. The following statements regarding the capsules of bacteria are correct, except:
A) Most bacterial capsules are polysaccharides and serve to protect the bacteria by inhibiting phagocytosis.
B) Bacterial capsules can vary antigenically, and as a result some bacteria have many serologic types.
C) Bacterial capsules can be purified and used in vaccines against certain bacteria, example the Pneumococcus.
D) Most gram-positive bacteria have capsules, whereas gram-negative bacteria rarely do.

106. The following statements regarding Coccidiodes immitis are correct, except:
A) It is a dimorphic fungus that grows as a mold in the soil and as spherules in the body.
B) Infection usually results from the inhalation of asexual spores (anthroconida), hence the primary site of infection is the lungs.
C) When cultured in the laboratory, the organism forms budding yeasts.
D) The most important host defense against this organism is cell-mediated immunity.

107. The following statements regarding bacterial exotoxins are correct, except:
A) They are integral parts of the cell wall.
B) They are produced by both Staphylococcus aureus and Escherichia coli.
C) They are polypeptides consisting of two functional regions, the one that binds to cell receptors and one that ha the toxic activity.
D) Treatment of some exotoxins with formaldehyde yields a toxoid, which is used as the immunogen in certain vaccines.
108. The following statements regarding the C3 component of the complement cascade are correct, except:
A) It is involved in both the classic and the alternative pathways.
B) Its C3a fragment can cause anaphylaxis by releasing histamines from mast cells.
C) Its C3b fragment binds to both IgG and surface receptors on neutrophils.
D) Its C3b fragment is part of the complex that causes lysis of gram-negative bacteria such as Neiserria.
109. Regarding the prevention of bacterial diseases by vaccines, which one of the following is least accurate?
A) Tetanus toxoid is produced by treating tetanus toxin with formalin, which inactivates its ability to cause disease
but leaves its antigenicity intact.
B) Diphtheria vaccine contains diphtheria toxoid and produces few side effects when given to children.
C) Both the pertussis vaccine and Haemophilus influenza vaccine contain inactivated whole bacteria and produce significant side effects in children.
D) The pneumococcal vaccine contains the capsular polysaccharide of many serotypes and is recommended primarily for older people.
110. This is a precipitation reaction test
A. titration of liberated nitric acid
B. direct titration with potassium permanganate
C. titration involving direct oxidation with ceric sulfate
D. dichlorophenol-indophenol titration
111. A method of assay for Vit. B12 and Calcium pantothenate is by
A. iodimetry C. microbial-turbidimetric method
B. redox D. fluorometry
112. A gram positive microorganism produces a stain that is
A. green C. colorless
B. purple D. red
113. While waiting for its release by quality control, materials are held in
A. receiving area C. finished goods warehouse
B. quarantine area D. packaging section
114. The sampling and examination of all raw materials received by the factory is a function of the
A. Documentation Section C. Materials Inspection
B. Biological Testing Laboratory D. Analytical Laboratory
115. The indicator for EDTA direct titration against CaCO3 is
A. methyl red C. methylene blue
B. hydroxynaphtol blue D. thymol blue
116. Which of the following structures involved in bacterial attachment to cell surfaces
A. flagella C. pili
B. mesosomes D. capsules
117. The X and Y factors required for growth of hemophilus influenza are contained in
A. chocolate agar C. brain heart infusion
B. thioglycolate broth D. shee blood agar
118. To measure optical activity of a sample, the instrument used is
A. flame photometer C. polarimeter
B. refractometer D. spectrometer
119. Clostridium perfringens causes
A. gas gangrene C. food poisoning
B. food infection D. flagellated organism
120. Safety or toxicity test for infusion plastic sets is conducted using
A. dogs C. white mice
B. food ingestion D. rabbits
121. The ricketsial infection is diagnosed by means of
A. lepromin C. complement fixation test
B. tuberculin test D. Weil-Felix test
122. Which of the following statements is not true about closures
A. should produce no leaks
B. should fit the tread of the container
C. should be reasonably elegant
D. should be made of plastic materials
123. Chemical analysis which determines the amount of percentage content in which the component of a substance is present is
A. quantitative C. qualitiative
B. proximate D. ultimate

124. The process of redistilling one or more times from fresh delicate drugs with small quantities of volatile principles
A. cohobation C. maceration
B. steam distillation D. reflux distillation
125. One of the following solvents is not used in the preparation of oral solutions, syrups and elixirs
A. ethylene glycol C. propylene glycol
B. alcohol USP D. purified water USP
126. Components of effervescent granules except
A. sodium carbonate C. tartaric acid
B. citric acid D. sodium bicarbonate
127. The term PSIG in reference to aerosol means
A. atmospheric pressure C. per square inch of glass
B. pounds per square inch gauge D. propellant safety in glass
128. Which of the following agents is/are available in a sublingual dosage form
A. isosorbide dinitrate C. hydrogenated ergot alkaloids (Hydergine)
B. all of these answers D.glycerin
129. The chief constituent of honey is
A. invert sugar C. levulose
B. sucrose D. pentose
130. One of the following is NOT a flavoring syrup
A. syrups rubi idea C. chloral hydrate syrup
B. chocolate syrup D. cherry syrup
131. Which of the following is NOT a method of splitting emulsions
A. centrifuging C. heat
B. filtering D. adding electrolytes
132. Often used as suppository base
A. wool fat C. lanolin
B. carbowax D. theobroma oil
133. If this method of mixing is not used, you cannot guarantee a uniform distribution of potent drugs
A. geometric dilution C. sifting
B. milling D. tumbling
134. The saline cathartics
1. act by increasing the osmotic load of the gastrointestinal tract
2. act by local irritation on the gastrointestinal tract
3. are salts of poorly absorbable
4. water soluble and are taken with large amounts of water
A. 1 and 3 C. 2,3 and 4
B. 1,3 and 4 D. 1 and 4
135. Iodine tinctures differs from iodine solution in that the tincture contains
A. acetone as vehicle C. alcohol as vehicle
B. water as solvent D. alcohol-acetone as solvent
136. One of the ff. is not used as colorant in pharmaceutical preparations
A. yellow mercuric oxide C. eyrthrocin
B. red ferric oxide D. caramel
137. Simple syrup is
A. highly unstable C. prone to microbial growth
B. none of these D. a supersaturated solution of sucrose in purified water
138. It is the uneven distribution of color in tablet surface
A. picking C. mottling
B. laminating D. capping
139. Glycogen suppositories are solidified by the use of
A. all of these C. glycerol triacetate
B. stearic acid D. sodium stearate
140. One of the following is not an emulsifying agent
A. cholesterol C. sodium sulfate
B. benzalkonium chloride D. sodium lauryl sulfate
141. A container which protects its contents from extraneous solids under normal conditions of handling and shipment is
A. tight container C. hermetic container
B. well-closed container D. well sealed container
142. Caps used to hold rubber closure in place for vials are made of
A. copper C. aluminum
B. tin coated metal D. tin
143. A liquid whose viscosity is increased when stress is applied is classified as which of the following materials
A. Newtonian C. thixotropic
B. dilatant D. plastic
144. If an acid is added to water, the solution will
A. change blue litmus to red
B. color phenolphthalein solution red
C. change red litmis to blue
D. exhibit an increase in pH
145. The characteristic ingredient in poultices
A. kaolin C. oil
B. water D. calcium carbonate
146. The Generics Act of 1988 is also known as
A. RA 3720 C. RA 6425
B. RA 5921 D. RA 6674
147. The colligative properties of a solution are related to the
A. ph C. number of ions
B. number of unionized molecules D. total no. of solute particles
148. Any distinctive combination of letters or numbers or both by which the complete history of the manufacture, control, packing and distribution of a batch or lot of a drug is determined
A. batch C. batch number
B. lot number D. kot
149. Complete wetting of a surface occurs when the contact angle between a liquid droplet and the surface is
A. 180 degrees C. 0 degrees
B. 160 degrees D. 00 degrees
150. One of the following is not used as a measure of the purity and identity of drugs
A. HLB C. melting point
B. solubility D. boiling point

compre sample questions

COMPREHENSIVE EXAMINATION sample questions
Summative Exam 1

Instruction: Write the letter corresponding to the best answer on the answer sheet provided. USE ONLY CAPITAL LETTERS and NO ERASURES ON THE ANSWER SHEET
1 Stereoisomers that are not mirror-images of each other are called
a. Structural isomers
b. Enantionmers
c. Anomers
d. Diastereomers
e. Cis-Trans isomers
2 Based on the resonance theory, what is the direction of electron movement in a compound with the following structure: CH3CH2CH2CH=CH2NH3+:
a. towards C1
b. towards C2
c. towards C3
d. towards C4
e. towards C5
3 A given compound has the molecular formula C6H6. The compound is most likely
a. 1,3-Cyclohexadiene
b. 1-Cyclohexene
c. 1,3,5-Hexatriene
d. 1,3,5-Hexatriyne
e. Benzene
4 Which of the following compounds is most susceptible to Addition reactions?
a. Phenol
b. 2-methylbutane
c. Ethene
d. Monobromoethane
e. Ethanol
5 A carbon with four different moieties attached to it is generally called
a. Anomeric carbon
b. Carbonyl carbon
c. Chiral center
d. Carboxyl carbon
e. Epimeric carbon
6 The compound with the formula, CH3CH2COCH2CH3 is a/an
a. Ketone
b. Aldehyde
c. Alcohol
d. Ether
e. Ester

7 What is the correct chemical formula for Ethoxypropane
a. CH3CH2CH2OCH2CH3
b. CH3CH2COOCH2CH3
c. CH3CH2CH2CH2CHO
d. CH3CH2CH2COCH3
e. CH3OCH2CH2CH2CH3

8 Give the IUPAC name of the given chemical: CH3CH=CHCH2OH
a. 2-propen-1-ol
b. 2-buten-1-ol
c. 2-penten-2-ol
d. 1-but-2-enol
e. 5-propenol

9 What type of hybrid orbitals exists between carbons 3 and 4 in the chemical CH3CH=CHCH2OH
a. sp3-sp3
b. px-px
c. sp2-sp3
d. sp-sp2
e. sp-sp3

10. At therapeutic doses, what is the mechanism involved in the CNS stimulating activity of the Methylxanthines
a. Inhibition of Phosphodiesterase enzyme
b. Stimulation of the adenylyl cyclase enzyme
c. Stimulation of the Phosphodiesterase enzyme
d. Inhibition of the adenosine-1 receptors
e. Stimulation of the adenosine-1 receptors

11.Chlorpheniramine and Brompheniramine are used in OTC cold preparations for their
A. microsomal enzyme inducing effects
C. histamine blocking action
B. sympathomimetic effects
D. anticholinergic effects
12.The conversion of glutamic acid to keto acid is called
A. transamination
C. deamination
B. decarboxylation
D. hydroxylation
13.Histamine 1 receptor antagonists are most useful in treating
A. anaphylaxis
C. asthma
B. localized allergic effect
D. gastric hyperacidity
14.Forces of attraction between non polar region of molecules and biological receptor
A. hydrophobic bonds
C. Van der Waals forces
B. covalent bonds
D. hydrogen bonds
15.The term given to the functional group of an organic molecule that absorbs maximum radiation in UV or IR region is
A. carbonyl
C. chromophore
B. nitrile
D. moiety
16 Barbiturates are used as
A. antacids
C. antiseptics
B. stimulants
D. sedatives
17 The antimicrobial potency of a halogenated phenol is determined by the specific halogen and its position in the molecule. One of the most effective halogenated phenol has:
A. chlorine in the para position D. bromine in the ortho position
B. one of these E. chlorine in the meta position
C. bromine in the para position
18.The following medicinal agents are classified as natural products EXCEPT:
A. penicillin D. atropine
B. erythromycin E. morphine
C. sulfadiazine
19. Naloxone and nalorphine are similar in that they both fall into therapeutic category known as:
A. opioid antagonist D. diuretics
B. serotonin agonist E. hyperlipidemics
C. serotonin reuptake inhibitors
20 Most anticholinergic drugs act by:
A. blocking cholinergic receptors D. destroying acetylcholine
B. activating the sympathetic receptors E. none of these
C. complexing with the active sites of acetylcholine molecule
21 The IUPAC name for isopropyl alcohol which is a common constituent of “rubbing alcohol” is:
A. 1 propanol D. 2 propanol
B. 1 methyl alcohol E. propyl alcohol
C. 1 propanal
22 Functional groups on organic molecules determine
I. Pharmacologic activities
II. Chemical properties
III. Radioactivity
A. I only C. III only E. I, II, and III
B. I and II D. II and III
23 “A group of iron containing isoenzymes that activate molecular oxygen to a form capable of interacting with organic substances.” The component of microsomal mixed function oxidase system which this description is most closely associated is
A. NADPH C. Cytochrome
B. ATP D. Cytochrome P-450
24 To have useful antibacterial activity, a sulfonamide molecule must process or be capable of conversion in the body into which of the following
A. a chloride group
B. a nonsubstituted aromatic amino group
C. an alkoxy group
D. a free sulfonic acid group
E. an alkylated aromatic amino group
25 If an anesthetic agent is highly soluble in both blood and tissue, then it can be predicted that the anesthetic will produce
A. slow recovery C. rapid recovery
B. slow induction D. rapid induction
26 The chemical name for Penicillin G is
A. alpha amino-benzyl penicillin C. benzyl penicillin
B. carboxybenzyl penicillin D. phenoxymethyl penicillin
27 CH3CH2CH2X  CH3CH=CH2+HCl is an example of _____ reaction
A. rearrangement C. condensation
B. elimination D. substitution
28 How many grams of potassium citrate is needed to prepare 1 liter of 10% solution
A. 1,000 g B. 50 g C. 100 g D. 10g
29 1 qt. is equivalent to ___ml
A. 175 ml B. 1410 ml C. 236.5 ml D. 946 ml
30 A prescription calls for 6 units of a drug to be taken 3x a day. How much will the patient have taken after 7 days?
A. 126 units B. 0.12 units C. all of these D. 12.6 units
31 Give ampicillin powder 250 mg IV every 6 hours. Stock is 500 mg dissolved in 2ml. How many ml provides 250mg?
A. 5ml B. 1ml C. 3 ml D. 2 ml
32 300 mg is equivalent to______ grains
A. 4.3 gr. B. 4.9 gr. C. 4.6 gr. D. 5.0 gr.
33 How many grams of a drug are required to make 120 ml of a 25% solution?
A. 30 g B. 10 g C. 12.0 g D. 12 g
34 How many milligrams of Sodium Fluoride will provide 500ug of Flouride ion? Atomic weight: Na=23, F=19
A. 11mg B. 2.1 mg C. 10.00 mg D. 1.105 mg
35 The doctor orders 1:8000 KMnO4 compresses to the right lower leg 20 mins. qid. You will prepare a 1 quart solution from available KMnO4 crystals 1gr packets by
A. dissolving 2 packets in 1000 mL sterile water
B. dissolving 2 packets in 2000mL sterile water
C. dissolving 1 packet in 100mL sterile water
D. dissolving 1 packet in 500 mL sterile water
36 Determine whether a dose of 1gr. q. 4h is appropriate for 1 year old baby whose surface area is 0.4m2 if the given adult dose ranges from 5 to 10 gr. q. 4h.
A. the dose should be 2/5 gr.
B. the dose is appropriate C. the dose should be 4/5 gr.
D. the dose should be 0.5 gr.
37 Prepare 30% alcohol cooling sponge using an entire 1pint of 70% isopropyl rubbing alcohol
A. add 500mL distilled water to 1pt. of 70% alcohol
B. add 656.6mL distilled water to 1pt of 70% alcohol
C. add 333.3mL distilled water to 1 pt. of 70% alcohol
D. add 200mL distilled water to 1 pt. of 70% alcohol
38 Change to percent the number 1/300
A. 3% B. 33% C. 3.3% D. 1/3%
39 Apply Young’s rule to determine the minimum dose of 6 year old child weighing 25kg, if the usual Morphine Sulfate adult dose is 8 to 20 mg prn for pain.
A. give 2.6 mg B. give 6.6 mg C. none of these D. give 5mg
40 A physician orders Meprobamate 0.2 g. How much is to be administered if the dose on hand is 400mg in each tablet:
A. do not dispense
B. give 2 tablets C. give 1 tablet
D. give ½ tablet
41 How is Pentobarbital Sodium 50 and 100mg capsules administered, when the doctor orders Nembutal iss gr. po hs prn.
A. give 1 Nembutal 100mg capsule orally every bedtime
B. give 1 Nembutal 50mg capsule orally at bedtime as required
C. give 1 Nembutal 100mg capsule orally at hour of sleep when required
D. give 1 Nembutal 50 mg and 1 Nembutal 100mg capsules at bedtime as required
42 Change 1/10% to a common fraction
A. 1/100 B. 1/10 C. 1/1000 D. 1/0.01
43 What is the dose for an 8 month old infant if the average adult dose of a drug is 250mg. Use Fried’s rule
A. 133 mg C. 13.33 mg
B. 0.13 mg D. 1.33 mg
44 A 250 ml infusion bottle contains 5.86 g of potassium chloride. How many milliequivalents of potassium chloride are present? MW of KCl is 74.6
A. 12.7 C. 78.5
B. 150 D. 20
45 How many mEq of magnesium sulfate (MW 120) are represented in a 5 ml dose of 5% w/v magnesium sulfate solution
A. 4.2 C. 2.1
B. 2.5 D. 3.0
46 An IV solution contains 0.2% succinylcholine chloride in sodium chloride injection. At what flow rate should a 500 ml infusion be administered to provide 2.5 mg of the drug per minute
A. 1.20 ml/min C. 1.35 ml/min
B. 1.15 ml/min D. 1.25 ml/min
47 A physician orders a 2g vial cephalothin sodium to be added to 500 ml of D5W. If the administration rate is 125 ml/hour, how many milligrams of cephalothin sodium will a patient receive per minute
A. 7.5 C.9.2
B. 8.3 D. 2.3
48 How many ml of a syrup having a specific gravity of 1.350 should be mixed with 3000 ml of a syrup having a specific gravity of 1.250 to obtain a product having a specific gravity of 1.310
A. 3500 ml C. 4600 ml
B. 4500 ml D. 5500 ml
49 If 800g of a 5% coal tar ointment is mixed with 1200 g of a 10% coal tar ointment, what is the concentration of coal tar in the finished product
A. 8.5% C. 8%
B. 9.5% D. 9%
50 An elixir is to contain 250 mg of an alkaloid in each tsp. dose. How many gm of the alkaloid will be required to prepare 5 liters of the elixirs
A. 0.25 g C. 250 g
B. 25 g D. 2.5 g
51 A prescription calls for 300,000 units of Penicillin G Potassium to be added to 500 ml of D5W. The directions on the 1,000,000 unit package state that if 1.6 ml of solvent are added the reconstituted solution will measure 2 ml. How many ml of the reconstituted solution must be withdrawn and added to the D5W
A. 0.6 ml C. 0.7 ml
B. 0.2 ml D. 0.4 ml
52 Proof spirit is an aqueous solution containing ____ proof of absolute alcohol
A. 40% C. 100%
B. 50% D. 70%
53 Twelve (12) bottles of 100-tablet multivitamins cost Php 3,000 when bought on a promotional deal. If the tablets sell for Php 450 per bottle, what percent of gross profit is realized on the selling price
A. 45% C. 35.44%
B. 40.44% D. 44.44%
54 Monosaccharides most rapidly absorbed from the small intestines is
A. galactose C. mannose
B. glucose D. fructose
55 Fixed oil obtained from cocus nucifera
A. corn oil C. persic oil
B. coconut oil D. castor oil
56 The main center of the biosynthesis of nucleic acid
A. cytoplasm C. golgi apparatus
B. nucleus D. lysosome
57 The most powerful glycoside from digitalis
A. digitalin C. lanatoside
B. digitonin D. digitoxin
58 The purity of a drug depends upon the ____ of foreign matters
A. quantity C. abundance
B. absence D. presence
59 Methyl morphine is also known as
A. morphine C. codeine
B. papaverine D. heroin
60 Energy supplied by one gram of carbohydrate is about ___kcal
A. four C. ten
B. six D. two
61 Protein digestion starts in the
A. intestines C. pancreas
B. stomach D. mouth
62 Dried and purified latex of the fruit of Carica papaya
A. bromelain C. pepsin
B. papain D. pectin
63 Proteins are precipitated by the following except
A. alcohol C. water
B. salts and heavy metals D. inorganic salts
64 Coloring pigment
A. heparin C. cytochrome
B. keratin D. melanin
65 Following are carbohydrate enzyme EXCEPT
A. sucrase C. maltase
B. lactase D. lipase
66 Most alkaloids are insoluble in
A. alcohol C. water
B. ether D. oil
67 Biochemical function of hemoglobin
A. regulatory C. oxygen transport
B. defense D. structural
68 Percentage of alcohol used as a local anti-infective
A. 75% C. 50%
B. 70% D. 40%
69 Enzyme that catalyzes the hydrolysis of proteins
A. ptyalin C. amylopsin
B. trypsin D. steapsin
70 All of the following are ways of classifying drugs EXCEPT
A. morphology C. taxonomy
B. therapeutic class D. price
71 The non-sugar component of the glycoside
A. ketone C. genin
B. glycone D. genic
72 Carotene prevents
A. scurvy C. xerolphthalmia
B. skin diseases D. scabies
73 Volatile oil from the fresh peel of C. limon fruit
A. garlic oil C. lemon oil
B. clove oil D. peppermint oil
74 Organic acid found in fruits of Averboa balimbi which is used as bleaching agent
A. citric C. tartaric
B. malonic D. oxalic
75 An antihypertensive alkaloid
A. amygdalin C. papaverine
B. quinidine D. reserpine
76 Tannin rich plants used in medicine as astringent
A. chestnut C. apple
B. krameria D. acacia
77 The syrup form is used in the treatment of drug overdose and in certain poisoning
A. belladonna C. cinchona
B. opium D. ipecac
78 Referred to as Indian tobacco
A. belladonna C. nicotine
B. lobelia D. areca
79 Phenol obtained from thyme oil
A. carvacrol C.glycol
B. thymol D.eugenol
80 Vit B12
A. riboflavin C. thiamine
B. cyanocobalamin D. pyridoxine
81 The __ of Rauwolfia serpentine is used as antihypertensive
A. root C. leaf
B. flower D. seed
82 Following are hexose sugars, EXCEPT
A. mannose C. ribose
B. maltose D. lactose
83 The monosaccharide that is a ketohexose is
A. fructose C. dextrose
B. glucose D. lactose
84 Oxidation of fatty acids involve
A. yeast C. ADP
B. AMP D. Co-enzyme A
85 Hydrolysis of carbohydrates into simple alcohols and ketones by microorganisms
A. fermentation C. oxidation
B. acid hydrolysis D. mutation
86 Commonly referred to as marijuana or “pot”
A. Cannabis sativa C. Allium sativum
B. Piper methysticum D. Pinus palustris
87 Derived from ergosterol
A. Vit. D3 C. Ergocalciferol
B. Cholecalciferol D. Ergot
88 Proteins that provide the body with means for combating infections and poison
A. serum albumin C. antibody proteins
B. lysine D. cytochrome
89 This substance accumulates in the muscles as a result of vigorous exercise
A. glucose C. muscle glycogen
B. amino acids D. lactic acid
90 A semisynthetic sugar prepared by alkaline rearrangement of lactose
A. lactulose C. levulose
B. xylulose D. ribolose
91 The reserve carbohydrate of plants is
A. cellulose C. dextran
B. dextrine D. starch
92 The most common naturally occurring sugar obtained by hydrolysis of starch
A. fructose C. glucose
B. lactose D. dextrose
93 All of the following are reduction test for sugars EXCEPT
A. Fehling’s C. Barfoed’s
B. Acrolein D. Benedict’s
94 Insulin is a/an ___ used as antidiabetic drug
A. neurotransmitter C. enzyme
B. hormone D. lipid
95 The polysaccharide that makes up the cell wall of plants
A. inulin C. levulose
B. starch D. cellulose
96 The chief end product of purine metabolism in man
A. CO C. Urea
B. Ammonia D. Uric acid
97 Choline is a constituent of:
A. lecithin B. methionine C. lard D. cholesterol
98 Which of the following is NOT actually structurally related to cholesterol:
A. Vitamin D C. adrenal cortical hormones
B. sex hormones D. Vit. A
99 The term :anaerobic phase” of glucose oxidation is used to designated series of reactions known as:
A. glycolysis B. glycogenesis C. all D. glycogenolysis
100 The sugar that produces only glucose when hydrolyzed is:
A. sucrose B. maltose C. lactose D. fructose
101 Compounds which differ in configuration only about or around one of the asymmetric C atoms are:
A. tautomers B. epimers C. enantiomorphs D. anomers
102 Which of the following is a water-soluble anti-oxidant:
A. lecithin B. ascorbyl palmitate C. alpha-tocopherol D. sodium bisulfite
103 Saturated fatty acids include:
A. all of them B. palmitic acid C. stearic acid D. caproic acid
104 Compounds possessing potentially free or free aldehydes or ketone group and two or more hydroxyl groups are called:
A. simple sugars C. carbohydrates
B. disaccharides D. none of them
105 Class of natural products with potent and diversed biological activities involved in platelet aggregation, pain and inflammation:
a. enzyme c. prostaglandins
b. hormones d. tubocurarine
106 Gotu Kola obtained from the leaves and stems of Centella asiatica used as diuretic, blood purifier, treat leprosy, body strengthener and revitalizer is locally known as:
a. takip-kuhol c. lagundi
b. sulasi d. mahogany
107 The first immunoglobulin to appear when a newly born infant begins its own antibody production:
a. IgD c. IgM
b. IgA d. IgE
108 The general test for carbohydrate based on the dehydration of sugar to furfural derivatives when the sugar is treated with concentrated, sulfuric acid producing a violet ring between two layers:
a. Fehling's test c. Benedict test
b. Hainse's test d. Molisch
109 An alkaloid which does not react with or precipitate with alkaloidal reagent is:
a. caffeine c. hyoscyamine
b. quinine d. emitine

110 Rheumatic fever is a disease which:
A. Can result from a transient bacteremia by viridans Streptococci
B. Is preceded by a group A streptococcal infection of the heart
C. Develops as a sequela to group A streptococcal infections
D. Affects the glomeruli of the kidney
111 A fungal disease which may be confused with tuberculosis because it produces pulmonary calcifications:
A. amebiasis D. Actinomycosis
B. Candidias E. Histoplasmosis
C. Blastomycosis
112 The presence of glossitis, pallor, macrocytic anemia, hyperplasia of the bone marrow, achlorhydria, atrophy of the gastric mucosa, and focal degenerative lesions of the dorsal and lateral columns of the spinal cord in a person older than middle-age suggests the individual has had a deficiency of vitamin:
A. A B. B1 C. B6 D. B12 E. C
113 Gout is an example of a disturbance in the metabolism of:
A. Calcium B. Purines C. Cholesterol D. Carbohydrates
114 Arguments against indiscriminate use of antibiotics as chemotherapeutic agents include the following, except:
A. Toxic effects of the antibiotics
B. Allergic reactions induced in patients
C. Development of drug resistance by an infectious agent
D. Secondary effects experienced due to creation of an imbalance in the normal body flora
E. The cost of medication
115 Which of the following antibiotics is effective in treating candidiasis?
A. Nystatin B. Bacitracin C. Tetracycline D. Griseofulvin E. Penicillin
116 Which of the following statements is correct regarding a patient recovered from hepatitis type B infection?
A. The virus will be excreted in the feces
B. The patient is a good candidate for blood donation
C. The patient will have protective immunity to all viral hepatitis
D. Detection of hepatitis B antigen in serum is indicative of the carrier state
117 Tetracycline antibiotics may stain children’s teeth between the ages of:
A. one month in utero and three years C. Birth and ten years
B. Six months in utero and eight years D. One and years
118 The amount of red blood cell destruction per day is best measured by the:
A. Hematocrit
B. Amount of iron excreted
C. Change in the red blood cell count
D. Amount of hemoglobin/100 ML blood
E. Amount of bile pigments excreted by the liver
119 A history of medication with which of the following drugs requires special consideration prior to general anesthesia?
A. Estrogen B. Cortisone C. Meperidine D. Phenacetin E. Diphenhydramine
120 Differential white blood cell counts in the laboratory are useful in the diagnosis of:
A. Anemia D. Eosinophilia
B. Spherocytosis E. Thrombocytopenic purpura
C. Vitamin deficiency
121 The most effective agent for the treatment of respiratory depression due to overdose of barbiturates is:
A. Oxygen D. Metrazol
B. Caffeine E. Picrotoxin
C. Coramine
122 Administration of corticosteroids is contraindicated when there is a history of:
A. Psychosis D. Diabetes mellitus
B. Peptic ulcer E. Any of the above
C. tuberculosis
123 Which of the following barbiturates, in therapeutic doses, is the longest acting?
A. Amytal D. Phenobarbital
B. Nembutal E. Pentothal
C. Secobarbital
124 Which of the following may be a feature of acromegaly
A. Crowded teeth D. Micrognathia
B. Large tongue E. Echma
C. Hypoglycemia
125 A patient is wide-eyed, very nervous with an increased systolic pressure, increased pulse rate, fine skin and hair, and loss of body weight. He is probably suffering from:
A. Diabetes B. Hyperpituitarism C.Hyperparathyroidism D. Hypothyroidism E. Hyperthyroidism
126 When rendering first aid care to a severely injured person, priority should be given to:
A. Arresting hemorrhage
B. Recognition and treatment of shock
C. Recognition of associated head injuries
D. Establishing and maintaining a patent airway
127 A patient having a white blood count of 3,000 cells per cubic millimeter would be said to have:
A. Leukemia C. Leukopenia
B. Leukolysis D. Leukocytosis
128 What elements interfere with the activity of tetracycline?
A. Mg and Na C. Na and K
B. Mg and Ca D. Ca and B1
129 The characteristic lesion of herpes virus infections on the skin or mucous membrane is:
A. Necrosis D. Hyperkeratosis
B. Tumefaction E. Vesicle
C. Abscess
130 Which of the following has been determined to be the most cariogenic carbohydrate?
A. Starch D. Glycogen
B. Sucrose E. Dextranase
C. Glucose
131 Pernicious anemia is usually associated with:
A. Iron deficiency D. Microcytic anemia
B. Glossitis E. Gastric hyperacidity
C. Blue sclera
132 Administration of which of the following drugs would be contraindicated in patients with allergic bronchial asthma:
A. Atropine D. Propranolol
B. Methacholine E. Phentolamine
C. d-Tubocurarine
133 Which of the following antibiotics is most likely to cause depression of the bone marrow?
A. Streptomycin D. Penicillin G
B. Tetracycline E. Chloramphenicol
C. Amophotericin B
134 Which of the following drugs would be useful in treating the dermatologic manifestations of an allergic response?
A. Diazepam D. Atropine
B. Phenoxybenzamine E. Hexylresorcinol
C. Chlorpheniramine
135 Which of the following drug classes has been definitely established to be teratogenic in humans?
A. Salicylates D. Barbiturates
B. Antianginals E. Antineoplastic agents
C. Local anesthetics
136 Which of the following adverse effects is most commonly associated with administration of an intravenous barbiturate?
A. Hypotension D. Renal failure
B. Hepatic Necrosis E. Nausea and vomiting
C. Respiratory Depression
137 Which of the following classes of drugs undergoes the least change in the body?
A. Alcohols D. Barbiturates
B. Salicylates E. Volatile anesthetics
C. Local anesthetics
138 Aplastic anemia is a serious toxic effect, which particularly occurs after a course of treatment with which of the following antibiotics?
A. Penicillin D. Tetracycline
B. Lincomycin E. Chlortetracycline
C. Chloramphenicol
139 Which of the following types of drug responses is least predictable in occurrence?
A. Side effect D. Idiosyncrasy
B. Tachyphylaxis E. Therapeutic action
C. Overdosage toxicity
140 Which one of the following is not considered an epinephrine use?
A. Control of local hemorrhage D. Use in allergic disorders
B. Decongestant E. Reduction of migraine episode
C. Use in combination with local anesthetics
141 The organs most prominently affected by B-blockers are:
A. Cardiovascular and CNS D. Heart and Bronchi
B. Stomach and kidney E. Liver and skin
C. Stomach and kidney
142 The responses of which one of the following drugs should be monitored when it is used simultaneously with propranolol?
A. Digoxin C. Chlorothiazide
B. Quinidine D. Insulin
143 In the selection of a B-blocker, which of the following is not a dominating factor?
A. The patient’s disease state
B. The cost of medication
C. The desirable pharmacokinetic effect of the drug
D. The most recently marketed drug
E. The desirable pharmacologic effect
144 Hypertensive crisis in a patient with a history of CHF, which one of the following agents should be the drug of first choice?
A. Diazoxide C. Hydralazine
B. Nitroprusside D. Trimethaphen
145 A diuretic specifically useful to induce diuresis in cases of poisoning is:
A. Hydrochlorothiazide C. Chlorthalidone
B. Triamterene D. Mannitol
146 A diuretic which could be used in patients with hypersensitivity to sulfonamide is:
A. Hydrochlorothiazide C. Ethacrynic acid
B. Furosemide D. Spironolactone
147 Which of the following groups of drugs does not aggravate congestive heart failure?
A. Estrogen C. Beta-blocking agents
B. Cardiac glycosides D. Corticosteroids
148 Which one of the following may increase the insulin requirements?
A. Increased physical activity C. Pregnancy
B. Increased food intake D. Acute infections
149 Which one of the following agents can be used QID/OD?
A. Ibuprofen B. Indomethacin C. Tolmetin D. Piroxicam
150 Which one of the following is not associated with rheumatoid arthritis?
A. Fatigue D. Joint swelling and pain
B. Anorexia E. Bleeding
C. Morning stiffness