TO ALL PHARMACY STUDENTS WITH COMPREHENSIVE REVIEW SUBJECT,PLEASE BE INFORMED THAT REVALIDA WILL BE GIVEN TO THOSE WHO DID NOT MAKE TO THE CUT OFF GRADE OF 75%. EXAM WILL BE GIVEN STARTING APRIL 19, 2012 (FRIDAY 1-5 pm), APRIL 20, 2012 ( SAT. 1-5 pm).PLEASE SEE ATTACHED SAMPLE QUESTIONS FOR YOUR PERUSAL. ONE HUNDRED ( 100)QUESTIONS WILL BE PICKED RANDOMLY. GOODLUCK!!!
LIST OF EXAMINEES WHO WILL TAKE ARE, EXCEPT:
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PHARMACEUTICAL REVIEW WITH COMPREHENSIVE EXAMINATION
Summative Exam 1
1 Stereoisomers that are not mirror-Images of each other are called
a. Structural isomers
b. Enantionmers
c. Anomers d. Diastereomers
e. Cis-Trans isomers
2 Based on the resonance theory, what is the direction of electron movement in a compound with the following structure: CH3CH2CH2CH=CH2NH3+:
a. towards C1
b. towards C2
c. towards C3 d. towards C4
e. towards C5
3 A given compound has the molecular formula C6H6. The compound is most likely
a. 1,3-Cyclohexadiene
b. 1-Cyclohexene
c. 1,3,5-Hexatriene d. 1,3,5-Hexatriyne
e. Benzene
4 Which of the following compounds is most susceptible to Addition reactions?
a. Phenol
b. 2-methylbutane
c. Ethene d. Monobromoethane
e. Ethanol
5 A carbon with four different moieties attached to it is generally called
a. Anomeric carbon
b. Carbonyl carbon
c. Chiral center d. Carboxyl carbon
e. Epimeric carbon
6 The compound with the formula, CH3CH2COCH2CH3 is a/an
a. Ketone
b. Aldehyde
c. Alcohol d. Ether
e. Ester
7 What is the correct chemical formula for Ethoxypropane
a. CH3CH2CH2OCH2CH3
b. CH3CH2COOCH2CH3
c. CH3CH2CH2CH2CHO d. CH3CH2CH2COCH3
e. CH3OCH2CH2CH2CH3
8 Give the IUPAC name of the given chemical: CH3CH=CHCH2OH
a. 2-propen-1-ol
b. 2-buten-1-ol
c. 2-penten-2-ol d. 1-but-2-enol
e. 5-propenol
9 What type of hybrid orbitals exists between carbons 3 and 4 in the chemical CH3CH=CHCH2OH
a. sp3-sp3
b. px-px
c. sp2-sp3 d. sp-sp2
e. sp-sp3
10 At therapeutic doses, what is the mechanism involved in the CNS stimulating activity of the Methylxanthines
a. Inhibition of Phosphodiesterase enzyme
b. Stimulation of the adenylyl cyclase enzyme
c. Stimulation of the Phosphodiesterase enzyme d. Inhibition of the adenosine-1 receptors
e. Stimulation of the adenosine-1 receptors
11 Chlorpheniramine and Brompheniramine are used in OTC cold preparations for their
A. microsomal enzyme inducing effects C. histamine blocking action
B. sympathomimetic effects D. anticholinergic effects
12 The conversion of glutamic acid to keto acid is called
A. transamination C. deamination
B. decarboxylation D. hydroxylation
13 Histamine 1 receptor antagonists are most useful in treating
A. anaphylaxis C. asthma
B. localized allergic effect D. gastric hyperacidity
14 Forces of attraction between non polar region of molecules and biological receptor
A. hydrophobic bonds C. Van der Waals forces
B. covalent bonds D. hydrogen bonds
15 The term given to the functional group of an organic molecule that absorbs maximum radiation in UV or IR region is
A. carbonyl C. chromophore
B. nitrile D. moiety
16 Barbiturates are used as
A. antacids C. antiseptics
B. stimulants D. sedatives
17 The antimicrobial potency of a halogenated phenol is determined by the specific halogen and its position in the molecule. One of the most effective halogenated phenol has:
A. chlorine in the para position D. bromine in the ortho position
B. one of these E. chlorine in the meta position
C. bromine in the para position
18 The following medicinal agents are classified as natural products EXCEPT:
A. penicillin D. atropine
B. erythromycin E. morphine
C. sulfadiazine
19 Naloxone and nalorphine are similar in that they both fall into therapeutic category known as:
A. opioid antagonist D. diuretics
B. serotonin agonist E. hyperlipidemics
C. serotonin reuptake inhibitors
20 Most anticholinergic drugs act by:
A. blocking cholinergic receptors D. destroying acetylcholine
B. activating the sympathetic receptors E. none of these
C. complexing with the active sites of acetylcholine molecule
21 The IUPAC name for isopropyl alcohol which is a common constituent of “rubbing alcohol” is:
A. 1 propanol D. 2 propanol
B. 1 methyl alcohol E. propyl alcohol
C. 1 propanal
22 Functional groups on organic molecules determine
I. Pharmacologic activities
II. Chemical properties
III. Radioactivity
A. I only C. III only E. I, II, and III
B. I and II D. II and III
23 “A group of iron containing isoenzymes that activate molecular oxygen to a form capable of interacting with organic substances.” The component of microsomal mixed function oxidase system which this description is most closely associated is
A. NADPH C. Cytochrome
B. ATP D. Cytochrome P-450
24 To have useful antibacterial activity, a sulfonamide molecule must process or be capable of conversion in the body into which of the following
A. a chloride group
B. a nonsubstituted aromatic amino group
C. an alkoxy group
D. a free sulfonic acid group
E. an alkylated aromatic amino group
25 If an anesthetic agent is highly soluble in both blood and tissue, then it can be predicted that the anesthetic will produce
A. slow recovery C. rapid recovery
B. slow induction D. rapid induction
26 The chemical name for Penicillin G is
A. alpha amino-benzyl penicillin C. benzyl penicillin
B. carboxybenzyl penicillin D. phenoxymethyl penicillin
27 CH3CH2CH2X CH3CH=CH2+HCl is an example of _____ reaction
A. rearrangement C. condensation
B. elimination D. substitution
28 How many grams of potassium citrate is needed to prepare 1 liter of 10% solution
A. 1,000 g B. 50 g C. 100 g D. 10g
29 1 qt. is equivalent to ___ml
A. 175 ml B. 1410 ml C. 236.5 ml D. 946 ml
30 A prescription calls for 6 units of a drug to be taken 3x a day. How much will the patient have taken after 7 days?
A. 126 units B. 0.12 units C. all of these D. 12.6 units
31 Give ampicillin powder 250 mg IV every 6 hours. Stock is 500 mg dissolved in 2ml. How many ml provides 250mg?
A. 5ml B. 1ml C. 3 ml D. 2 ml
32 300 mg is equivalent to______ grains
A. 4.3 gr. B. 4.9 gr. C. 4.6 gr. D. 5.0 gr.
33 How many grams of a drug are required to make 120 ml of a 25% solution?
A. 30 g B. 10 g C. 12.0 g D. 12 g
34 How many milligrams of Sodium Fluoride will provide 500ug of Flouride ion? Atomic weight: Na=23, F=19
A. 11mg B. 2.1 mg C. 10.00 mg D. 1.105 mg
35 The doctor orders 1:8000 KMnO4 compresses to the right lower leg 20 mins. qid. You will prepare a 1 quart solution from available KMnO4 crystals 1gr packets by
A. dissolving 2 packets in 1000 mL sterile water
B. dissolving 2 packets in 2000mL sterile water
C. dissolving 1 packet in 100mL sterile water
D. dissolving 1 packet in 500 mL sterile water
36 Determine whether a dose of 1gr. q. 4h is appropriate for 1 year old baby whose surface area is 0.4m2 if the given adult dose ranges from 5 to 10 gr. q. 4h.
A. the dose should be 2/5 gr.
B. the dose is appropriate C. the dose should be 4/5 gr.
D. the dose should be 0.5 gr.
37 Prepare 30% alcohol cooling sponge using an entire 1pint of 70% isopropyl rubbing alcohol
A. add 500mL distilled water to 1pt. of 70% alcohol
B. add 656.6mL distilled water to 1pt of 70% alcohol
C. add 333.3mL distilled water to 1 pt. of 70% alcohol
D. add 200mL distilled water to 1 pt. of 70% alcohol
38 Change to percent the number 1/300
A. 3% B. 33% C. 3.3% D. 1/3%
39 Apply Young’s rule to determine the minimum dose of 6 year old child weighing 25kg, if the usual Morphine Sulfate adult dose is 8 to 20 mg prn for pain.
A. give 2.6 mg B. give 6.6 mg C. none of these D. give 5mg
40 A physician orders Meprobamate 0.2 g. How much is to be administered if the dose on hand is 400mg in each tablet:
A. do not dispense
B. give 2 tablets C. give 1 tablet
D. give ½ tablet
41 How is Pentobarbital Sodium 50 and 100mg capsules administered, when the doctor orders Nembutal iss gr. po hs prn.
A. give 1 Nembutal 100mg capsule orally every bedtime
B. give 1 Nembutal 50mg capsule orally at bedtime as required
C. give 1 Nembutal 100mg capsule orally at hour of sleep when required
D. give 1 Nembutal 50 mg and 1 Nembutal 100mg capsules at bedtime as required
42 Change 1/10% to a common fraction
A. 1/100 B. 1/10 C. 1/1000 D. 1/0.01
43 What is the dose for an 8 month old infant if the average adult dose of a drug is 250mg. Use Fried’s rule
A. 133 mg C. 13.33 mg
B. 0.13 mg D. 1.33 mg
44 A 250 ml infusion bottle contains 5.86 g of potassium chloride. How many milliequivalents of potassium chloride are present? MW of KCl is 74.6
A. 12.7 C. 78.5
B. 150 D. 20
45 How many mEq of magnesium sulfate (MW 120) are represented in a 5 ml dose of 5% w/v magnesium sulfate solution
A. 4.2 C. 2.1
B. 2.5 D. 3.0
46 An IV solution contains 0.2% succinylcholine chloride in sodium chloride injection. At what flow rate should a 500 ml infusion be administered to provide 2.5 mg of the drug per minute
A. 1.20 ml/min C. 1.35 ml/min
B. 1.15 ml/min D. 1.25 ml/min
47 A physician orders a 2g vial cephalothin sodium to be added to 500 ml of D5W. If the administration rate is 125 ml/hour, how many milligrams of cephalothin sodium will a patient receive per minute
A. 7.5 C.9.2
B. 8.3 D. 2.3
48 How many ml of a syrup having a specific gravity of 1.350 should be mixed with 3000 ml of a syrup having a specific gravity of 1.250 to obtain a product having a specific gravity of 1.310
A. 3500 ml C. 4600 ml
B. 4500 ml D. 5500 ml
49 If 800g of a 5% coal tar ointment is mixed with 1200 g of a 10% coal tar ointment, what is the concentration of coal tar in the finished product
A. 8.5% C. 8%
B. 9.5% D. 9%
50 An elixir is to contain 250 mg of an alkaloid in each tsp. dose. How many gm of the alkaloid will be required to prepare 5 liters of the elixirs
A. 0.25 g C. 250 g
B. 25 g D. 2.5 g
51 A prescription calls for 300,000 units of Penicillin G Potassium to be added to 500 ml of D5W. The directions on the 1,000,000 unit package state that if 1.6 ml of solvent are added the reconstituted solution will measure 2 ml. How many ml of the reconstituted solution must be withdrawn and added to the D5W
A. 0.6 ml C. 0.7 ml
B. 0.2 ml D. 0.4 ml
52 Proof spirit is an aqueous solution containing ____ proof of absolute alcohol
A. 40% C. 100%
B. 50% D. 70%
53 Twelve (12) bottles of 100-tablet multivitamins cost Php 3,000 when bought on a promotional deal. If the tablets sell for Php 450 per bottle, what percent of gross profit is realized on the selling price
A. 45% C. 35.44%
B. 40.44% D. 44.44%
54 Monosaccharides most rapidly absorbed from the small intestines is
A. galactose C. mannose
B. glucose D. fructose
55 Fixed oil obtained from cocus nucifera
A. corn oil C. persic oil
B. coconut oil D. castor oil
56 The main center of the biosynthesis of nucleic acid
A. cytoplasm C. golgi apparatus
B. nucleus D. lysosome
57 The most powerful glycoside from digitalis
A. digitalin C. lanatoside
B. digitonin D. digitoxin
58 The purity of a drug depends upon the ____ of foreign matters
A. quantity C. abundance
B. absence D. presence
59 Methyl morphine is also known as
A. morphine C. codeine
B. papaverine D. heroin
60 Energy supplied by one gram of carbohydrate is about ___kcal
A. four C. ten
B. six D. two
61 Protein digestion starts in the
A. intestines C. pancreas
B. stomach D. mouth
62 Dried and purified latex of the fruit of Carica papaya
A. bromelain C. pepsin
B. papain D. pectin
63 Proteins are precipitated by the following except
A. alcohol C. water
B. salts and heavy metals D. inorganic salts
64 Coloring pigment
A. heparin C. cytochrome
B. keratin D. melanin
65 Following are carbohydrate enzyme EXCEPT
A. sucrase C. maltase
B. lactase D. lipase
66 Most alkaloids are insoluble in
A. alcohol C. water
B. ether D. oil
67 Biochemical function of hemoglobin
A. regulatory C. oxygen transport
B. defense D. structural
68 Percentage of alcohol used as a local anti-infective
A. 75% C. 50%
B. 70% D. 40%
69 Enzyme that catalyzes the hydrolysis of proteins
A. ptyalin C. amylopsin
B. trypsin D. steapsin
70 All of the following are ways of classifying drugs EXCEPT
A. morphology C. taxonomy
B. therapeutic class D. price
71 The non-sugar component of the glycoside
A. ketone C. genin
B. glycone D. genic
72 Carotene prevents
A. scurvy C. xerolphthalmia
B. skin diseases D. scabies
73 Volatile oil from the fresh peel of C. limon fruit
A. garlic oil C. lemon oil
B. clove oil D. peppermint oil
74 Organic acid found in fruits of Averboa balimbi which is used as bleaching agent
A. citric C. tartaric
B. malonic D. oxalic
75 An antihypertensive alkaloid
A. amygdalin C. papaverine
B. quinidine D. reserpine
76 Tannin rich plants used in medicine as astringent
A. chestnut C. apple
B. krameria D. acacia
77 The syrup form is used in the treatment of drug overdose and in certain poisoning
A. belladonna C. cinchona
B. opium D. ipecac
78 Referred to as Indian tobacco
A. belladonna C. nicotine
B. lobelia D. areca
79 Phenol obtained from thyme oil
A. carvacrol C.glycol
B. thymol D.eugenol
80 Vit B12
A. riboflavin C. thiamine
B. cyanocobalamin D. pyridoxine
81 The __ of Rauwolfia serpentine is used as antihypertensive
A. root C. leaf
B. flower D. seed
82 Following are hexose sugars, EXCEPT
A. mannose C. ribose
B. maltose D. lactose
83 The monosaccharide that is a ketohexose is
A. fructose C. dextrose
B. glucose D. lactose
84 Oxidation of fatty acids involve
A. yeast C. ADP
B. AMP D. Co-enzyme A
85 Hydrolysis of carbohydrates into simple alcohols and ketones by microorganisms
A. fermentation C. oxidation
B. acid hydrolysis D. mutation
86 Commonly referred to as marijuana or “pot”
A. Cannabis sativa C. Allium sativum
B. Piper methysticum D. Pinus palustris
87 Derived from ergosterol
A. Vit. D3 C. Ergocalciferol
B. Cholecalciferol D. Ergot
88 Proteins that provide the body with means for combating infections and poison
A. serum albumin C. antibody proteins
B. lysine D. cytochrome
89 This substance accumulates in the muscles as a result of vigorous exercise
A. glucose C. muscle glycogen
B. amino acids D. lactic acid
90 A semisynthetic sugar prepared by alkaline rearrangement of lactose
A. lactulose C. levulose
B. xylulose D. ribolose
91 The reserve carbohydrate of plants is
A. cellulose C. dextran
B. dextrine D. starch
92 The most common naturally occurring sugar obtained by hydrolysis of starch
A. fructose C. glucose
B. lactose D. dextrose
93 All of the following are reduction test for sugars EXCEPT
A. Fehling’s C. Barfoed’s
B. Acrolein D. Benedict’s
94 Insulin is a/an ___ used as antidiabetic drug
A. neurotransmitter C. enzyme
B. hormone D. lipid
95 The polysaccharide that makes up the cell wall of plants
A. inulin C. levulose
B. starch D. cellulose
96 The chief end product of purine metabolism in man
A. CO C. Urea
B. Ammonia D. Uric acid
97 Choline is a constituent of:
A. lecithin B. methionine C. lard D. cholesterol
98 Which of the following is NOT actually structurally related to cholesterol:
A. Vitamin D C. adrenal cortical hormones
B. sex hormones D. Vit. A
99 The term :anaerobic phase” of glucose oxidation is used to designated series of reactions known as:
A. glycolysis B. glycogenesis C. all D. glycogenolysis
100 The sugar that produces only glucose when hydrolyzed is:
A. sucrose B. maltose C. lactose D. fructose
101 Compounds which differ in configuration only about or around one of the asymmetric C atoms are:
A. tautomers B. epimers C. enantiomorphs D. anomers
102 Which of the following is a water-soluble anti-oxidant:
A. lecithin B. ascorbyl palmitate C. alpha-tocopherol D. sodium bisulfite
103 Saturated fatty acids include:
A. all of them B. palmitic acid C. stearic acid D. caproic acid
104 Compounds possessing potentially free or free aldehydes or ketone group and two or more hydroxyl groups are called:
A. simple sugars C. carbohydrates
B. disaccharides D. none of them
105 Class of natural products with potent and diversed biological activities involved in platelet aggregation, pain and inflammation:
a. enzyme c. prostaglandins
b. hormones d. tubocurarine
106 Gotu Kola obtained from the leaves and stems of Centella asiatica used as diuretic, blood purifier, treat leprosy, body strengthener and revitalizer is locally known as:
a. takip-kuhol c. lagundi
b. sulasi d. mahogany
107 The first immunoglobulin to appear when a newly born infant begins its own antibody production:
a. IgD c. IgM
b. IgA d. IgE
108 The general test for carbohydrate based on the dehydration of sugar to furfural derivatives when the sugar is treated with concentrated, sulfuric acid producing a violet ring between two layers:
a. Fehling's test c. Benedict test
b. Hainse's test d. Molisch
109 An alkaloid which does not react with or precipitate with alkaloidal reagent is:
a. caffeine c. hyoscyamine
b. quinine d. emitine
110 Rheumatic fever is a disease which:
A. Can result from a transient bacteremia by viridans Streptococci
B. Is preceded by a group A streptococcal infection of the heart
C. Develops as a sequela to group A streptococcal infections
D. Affects the glomeruli of the kidney
111 A fungal disease which may be confused with tuberculosis because it produces pulmonary calcifications:
A. amebiasis D. Actinomycosis
B. Candidias E. Histoplasmosis
C. Blastomycosis
112 The presence of glossitis, pallor, macrocytic anemia, hyperplasia of the bone marrow, achlorhydria, atrophy of the gastric mucosa, and focal degenerative lesions of the dorsal and lateral columns of the spinal cord in a person older than middle-age suggests the individual has had a deficiency of vitamin:
A. A B. B1 C. B6 D. B12 E. C
113 Gout is an example of a disturbance in the metabolism of:
A. Calcium B. Purines C. Cholesterol D. Carbohydrates
114 Arguments against indiscriminate use of antibiotics as chemotherapeutic agents include the following, except:
A. Toxic effects of the antibiotics
B. Allergic reactions induced in patients
C. Development of drug resistance by an infectious agent
D. Secondary effects experienced due to creation of an imbalance in the normal body flora
E. The cost of medication
115 Which of the following antibiotics is effective in treating candidiasis?
A. Nystatin B. Bacitracin C. Tetracycline D. Griseofulvin E. Penicillin
116 Which of the following statements is correct regarding a patient recovered from hepatitis type B infection?
A. The virus will be excreted in the feces
B. The patient is a good candidate for blood donation
C. The patient will have protective immunity to all viral hepatitis
D. Detection of hepatitis B antigen in serum is indicative of the carrier state
117 Tetracycline antibiotics may stain children’s teeth between the ages of:
A. one month in utero and three years C. Birth and ten years
B. Six months in utero and eight years D. One and years
118 The amount of red blood cell destruction per day is best measured by the:
A. Hematocrit
B. Amount of iron excreted
C. Change in the red blood cell count
D. Amount of hemoglobin/100 ML blood
E. Amount of bile pigments excreted by the liver
119 A history of medication with which of the following drugs requires special consideration prior to general anesthesia?
A. Estrogen B. Cortisone C. Meperidine D. Phenacetin E. Diphenhydramine
120 Differential white blood cell counts in the laboratory are useful in the diagnosis of:
A. Anemia D. Eosinophilia
B. Spherocytosis E. Thrombocytopenic purpura
C. Vitamin deficiency
121 The most effective agent for the treatment of respiratory depression due to overdose of barbiturates is:
A. Oxygen D. Metrazol
B. Caffeine E. Picrotoxin
C. Coramine
122 Administration of corticosteroids is contraindicated when there is a history of:
A. Psychosis D. Diabetes mellitus
B. Peptic ulcer E. Any of the above
C. tuberculosis
123 Which of the following barbiturates, in therapeutic doses, is the longest acting?
A. Amytal D. Phenobarbital
B. Nembutal E. Pentothal
C. Secobarbital
124 Which of the following may be a feature of acromegaly
A. Crowded teeth D. Micrognathia
B. Large tongue E. Echma
C. Hypoglycemia
125 A patient is wide-eyed, very nervous with an increased systolic pressure, increased pulse rate, fine skin and hair, and loss of body weight. He is probably suffering from:
A. Diabetes B. Hyperpituitarism C.Hyperparathyroidism D. Hypothyroidism E. Hyperthyroidism
126 When rendering first aid care to a severely injured person, priority should be given to:
A. Arresting hemorrhage
B. Recognition and treatment of shock
C. Recognition of associated head injuries
D. Establishing and maintaining a patent airway
127 A patient having a white blood count of 3,000 cells per cubic millimeter would be said to have:
A. Leukemia C. Leukopenia
B. Leukolysis D. Leukocytosis
128 What elements interfere with the activity of tetracycline?
A. Mg and Na C. Na and K
B. Mg and Ca D. Ca and B1
129 The characteristic lesion of herpes virus infections on the skin or mucous membrane is:
A. Necrosis D. Hyperkeratosis
B. Tumefaction E. Vesicle
C. Abscess
130 Which of the following has been determined to be the most cariogenic carbohydrate?
A. Starch D. Glycogen
B. Sucrose E. Dextranase
C. Glucose
131 Pernicious anemia is usually associated with:
A. Iron deficiency D. Microcytic anemia
B. Glossitis E. Gastric hyperacidity
C. Blue sclera
132 Administration of which of the following drugs would be contraindicated in patients with allergic bronchial asthma:
A. Atropine D. Propranolol
B. Methacholine E. Phentolamine
C. d-Tubocurarine
133 Which of the following antibiotics is most likely to cause depression of the bone marrow?
A. Streptomycin D. Penicillin G
B. Tetracycline E. Chloramphenicol
C. Amophotericin B
134 Which of the following drugs would be useful in treating the dermatologic manifestations of an allergic response?
A. Diazepam D. Atropine
B. Phenoxybenzamine E. Hexylresorcinol
C. Chlorpheniramine
135 Which of the following drug classes has been definitely established to be teratogenic in humans?
A. Salicylates D. Barbiturates
B. Antianginals E. Antineoplastic agents
C. Local anesthetics
136 Which of the following adverse effects is most commonly associated with administration of an intravenous barbiturate?
A. Hypotension D. Renal failure
B. Hepatic Necrosis E. Nausea and vomiting
C. Respiratory Depression
137 Which of the following classes of drugs undergoes the least change in the body?
A. Alcohols D. Barbiturates
B. Salicylates E. Volatile anesthetics
C. Local anesthetics
138 Aplastic anemia is a serious toxic effect, which particularly occurs after a course of treatment with which of the following antibiotics?
A. Penicillin D. Tetracycline
B. Lincomycin E. Chlortetracycline
C. Chloramphenicol
139 Which of the following types of drug responses is least predictable in occurrence?
A. Side effect D. Idiosyncrasy
B. Tachyphylaxis E. Therapeutic action
C. Overdosage toxicity
140 Which one of the following is not considered an epinephrine use?
A. Control of local hemorrhage D. Use in allergic disorders
B. Decongestant E. Reduction of migraine episode
C. Use in combination with local anesthetics
141 The organs most prominently affected by B-blockers are:
A. Cardiovascular and CNS D. Heart and Bronchi
B. Stomach and kidney E. Liver and skin
C. Stomach and kidney
142 The responses of which one of the following drugs should be monitored when it is used simultaneously with propranolol?
A. Digoxin C. Chlorothiazide
B. Quinidine D. Insulin
143 In the selection of a B-blocker, which of the following is not a dominating factor?
A. The patient’s disease state
B. The cost of medication
C. The desirable pharmacokinetic effect of the drug
D. The most recently marketed drug
E. The desirable pharmacologic effect
144 Hypertensive crisis in a patient with a history of CHF, which one of the following agents should be the drug of first choice?
A. Diazoxide C. Hydralazine
B. Nitroprusside D. Trimethaphen
145 A diuretic specifically useful to induce diuresis in cases of poisoning is:
A. Hydrochlorothiazide C. Chlorthalidone
B. Triamterene D. Mannitol
146 A diuretic which could be used in patients with hypersensitivity to sulfonamide is:
A. Hydrochlorothiazide C. Ethacrynic acid
B. Furosemide D. Spironolactone
147 Which of the following groups of drugs does not aggravate congestive heart failure?
A. Estrogen C. Beta-blocking agents
B. Cardiac glycosides D. Corticosteroids
148 Which one of the following may increase the insulin requirements?
A. Increased physical activity C. Pregnancy
B. Increased food intake D. Acute infections
149 Which one of the following agents can be used QID/OD?
A. Ibuprofen B. Indomethacin C. Tolmetin D. Piroxicam
150 Which one of the following is not associated with rheumatoid arthritis?
A. Fatigue D. Joint swelling and pain
B. Anorexia E. Bleeding
C. Morning stiffness
PHARMACEUTICAL REVIEW WITH COMPREHENSIVE EXAMINATION
Summative Exam 2
1. Bentonite magma is primarily used as :
A. analgesic B. antacid C. stimulant D. suspending agent
2. Parabens are used in syrups as:
A. preservative B. buffer C. thickener D. sweetener
3. Characteristics of an ideal ointment:
A. all of these answers
B. stable, compatible with common medicaments and easily compounded
C. non-greasy and non-dehydrating
D. non irritating and water removable
4. A 30 mL aliquot was obtained from a mixture of 73% unknown solution. If the sample is diluted to 50mL, what is its final concentration?
A. 43.8% B. 39.4% C. 36.5% D. 20.5%
5. Calculate the number of kilograms of a 20% w/w solution which can be made from a kilogram of solute:
A. 5.0 B. 5000 C. 0.5 D. 50.0
6. Alcohol contained in rubbing alcohol that are properly sold in the market:
A. butyl B. ethyl C. propyl D. isopropyl
7. The only source of Sodium Chloride is in the form of tablets, each containing 3.0g. How many tablets should be used in preparing 3000 liters of a solution of such strength that 20 mL diluted to 100 mL with water will yield a 0.9% w/v solution? (Bonus: Answer – 45000)
A. 60,000 tabs B. 27,000 tabs C. 12,000 tabs D. 9,000 tabs
8. One of the following is not a case of adulterated drugs
A. labels are smeared and dirty
B. substandard material have been added
C. potency of drug is below label claim
D. other active components are added but not stated in the label
9. Tablet is the preferred dosage form because of
A. economy C. stability
B. precision of dosage D. all of these
10. Ringer’s Injection USP contains
1. Sodium chloride 2. Sodium lactate
3. Calcium chloride 4. Potassium chloride
A. 1 and 2
B. 1,2 and 3
C. 1,3 and 4
D. 3 and 4
11. Government office where you obtain a business permit to open a D/S, drug department as a sole proprietor
A. PRC C. BFAD
B. Bureau of Domestic Trade D. SEC
12. One of the following is not used as a flavoring syrup
A. raspberry C. cherry
B. senna D. cocoa
13. Sterilization technique in which the mechanism of action is based on the destruction of reproductive capabilities of the microorganism through lethal mutation
A. gas sterilization C. sterilization by ionizing radiation
B. lyophilization D. sterilization by filtration
14. Uniformity of blending during manufacturing to ensure equal distribution of the actives within a certain period of time is ascertained by
A. calibration C. validation of mixing time
B. weight variation test D. determination of moisture content
15. Manner of approval in which import certificate shall be signed by the Commissioner of Internal Revenue
A. facsimile C. countersigned
B. stamp D. his real original signature
16. In the case of drug recall, the responsibility for the quality of drugs in original sealed containers rests with
A. drug distributors C. drug manufacturers
B. delivery men D. Pharmacist in charge
17. Weak electrolytes are:
A. none of these C. unionized
B. completely ionized D. slightly ionized
18. The abuse of this drug is responsible for major medical and socio economic problems
A. chloral hydrate C. a and d
B. nitrous oxide D. ethanol
19. Poisoning due to anticholinesterase is best managed by the administration of
A. theophylline C. salbutamol
B. atropine D. Nifedipine
20. A selective B1 blocker
A. salbutamol C. metoprolol
B. imipramine D. ethanol
21. Conjunctival and bronchial irritation are the primary symptoms of exposure to
A. ergot C. ethylene
B. sulfur dioxide D. mercury
22. It is a cofactor in enzymatic reaction involved in phosphorylation, cholesterol and fatty acid synthesis
A. mercury C. manganese
B. molybdenum D. nickel
23. It is used in silvering of mirror and it causes metal-like gum
A. cesium C. boron
B. cadmium D. bismuth
24. One of these drugs is a narcotic analgesic
A. meperidine C. paracetamol
B. mefenamic acid D. indomethacin
25. Deferoxamine is an antidote for
A. iron C. calcium
B. methanol D. iodine
26. These are simple asphyxiants which are gases EXCEPT
A. ethyl alcohol C. nitrogen
B. methane D. none of these
27. The permeable factor involved in inflammatory condition is
A. substance P C. receptor
B. enzyme D. endorphin
28. Adverse effects of nitrates is/are
A. dizziness C. headache
B. all of these D. hypertension
29. This does not belong to the parasympathetic nervous system
A. muscarinic receptors C. nicotinic receptors
B. none of these D. alpha receptors
30. This term denotes the usual amount of exposure to a given agent that is deemed safe for a stated period of time
A. bioaccumulation C. none of these
B. risk D. threshold limit value
31. The anti-inflammatory effect of acetylsalicylic acid is due to
A. increased membrane permeability of the inflamed tissue
B. inhibition of the synthesis of prostaglandins
C. an antigen-antibody reaction
D. stimulation of endogenous hydrocortisone production
32. This metal is used in the manufacture of permanent magnets, it enhance foaming qualities of beer
A. cobalt C. magnesium
B. iron D. lead
33. Phenylbutazone is
A. an active metabolite of oxyphenbutazone
B. metabolized to oxyphenbutazone
C. an inactive metabolite oxyphenbutazone
D. excreted unchanged in the urine
34. A type of poison that causes blackening and severe corrosion in the mouth
A. nitric acid C. phenol
B. sulfuric acid D. HCl
35. Escherichia, Klebsiella and Proteus are frequently normal flora of the
A. gastrointestinal tract C. superficial skin surface
B. urinary tract D. respiratory tract
36. It can destroy both vegetative and spore bearing organism
A. incinerator C. autoclave
B. oven D. inspissator
37. The index of refraction of a volatile oil is determined by using
A. spectrophotometer C. refractometer
B. pycnometer D. polarimeter
38. Drug substances that are withheld from distribution until batch certifications from BFAD is actually received
A. antineoplastics C. antibiotics
B. all of these D. vitamins
39. The residue after incineration of a crude drug sample was 0.1152 g and the residue after treatment of the ash with diluted HCl was 0.0651g. The % of silica obtained from 7.8525 g sample is
A. 1.467% C. 0.638%
B. 0.829% D. 2.30%
40. An example of a primary packaging component is
A. bottle C. packer case
B. label D. insert
41. Which of the following gram negative rods is the leading cause of urinary tract infection in otherwise healthy individuals
A. Proteus mirabilis C. Escherichia coli
B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa D. Klebsiella pneumonia
42. What is preferred for standardization of permanganate
A. sodium oxalate C. hydrogen peroxide
B. sodium carbonate D. sodium nitrate
43. Instability will be accelerated by
A. all of these C. heat
B. temperature D. light
44. The most common manifestation of infection in the hospitalized patient
A. fever C. chills
B. cough D. myalgia
45. Plastic containers for ophthalmic or parenteral preparations are sterilized by
A. autoclaving C. ethylene blue
B. soaking in formalin D. microwave
46. Assay of NaCl in table salt by precipitation as AgCl, filtration drying and weighing the residue is classified as
A. precipitimetry C. gravimetric analysis
B. volhard method D. residual precipitimetry
47. Responsible for reducing the release of NE from sympathetic nerves: (bonus)
a. Beta 1 postsynaptic adrenergic receptor
b. Beta 2 postsynaptic adrenergic receptor
c. Alpha 1 postsynaptic adrenergic receptor
d. Alpha 2 postsynaptic adrenergic receptor
e. all
48. Produces competitive antagonism of catecholamine by blockade of alpha 1 receptors:
a. Phenoxybenzamine d. all
b. Phentolamine e. none
c. Ephedrine
49. This may occur when the electrical conduction pathways malfunction:
a. chest pain b. hypertension c. arrhythmias d. MI e. all
50. Placebo may be given:
a. as a control of specific evaluation of drugs
b. to benefit/please a patient not by any pharmacological actions but by psychological means
c. to patients with mild psychological disorders who attribute their symptoms to physical disease
d. all of these
e. none of these
51. A branch of pharmacology that deals with the study of doses:
a. Pharmacy b. Posology c. Toxicology d. Pharmacognosy
52. It refers to the fate of the drug during its sojourn through the body:
a. Pharmacokinetics b. Pharmacodynamics c. Pharmacogenetics d. Pharmacotherapeutics
53. Drugs administered by inhalation are absorbed in the:
a. small intestine b. nasal mucosa c. lungs d. stomach
54. Weak acids are reabsorbed into the bloodstream when:
a. the urinary pH is high c. the urinary pH is low
b. the urine is made alkaline d. all situations apply
55. All of the ff. are catecholamines, EXCEPT:
a. Acetylcholine b. Norepinephrine c. 5HT d. Dopamine
56. Which of the following is an inhibitory amino acid?
a. Glutamate b. Aspartate c. GABA d. none of these
57. The following situations give rise to excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP), EXCEPT:
a. Na+ conductance c. depolarization of the membrane
b. opening of Ca++ion channel d. opening of Cl- ion channel
58. The response characterized by increasing magnitude with greater concentration of unbound drug at the receptor site:
a. “graded” b. quantal c. all-or-none d. margin of safety
59. It refers to the relative concentration required to produce a given magnitude of effect:
a. affinity b. efficacy c. potency d. none of these
60. Interaction of two drugs whose opposing actions in the body tend to cancel each other’s effect:
a. noncompetitive b. chemical c. physiological d. pharmacokinetic
61. The period from the drug administration to the first visible effect is:
a. onset of action c. ceiling effect
b. duration of action d. peak time
62. Parkinson’s disease is due to:
a. excessive cholinergic activity c. deficiency of dopamine level in the brain
b. damage to the basal ganglia d. all of these
63. When MAOi is taken with tyramine containing food it can result to serious consequences such as:
a. hypertensive crisis d. a and b only
b. cerebral stroke e. all
c. insomnia
64. Meclizine is used to prevent nausea and vomiting due to:
a. vertigo b. motion sickness c. either a or b d. neither a nor b
65. Antipsychotic agents reduce hallucinations and agitation by:
a. blocking the reuptake of NE and SE c. ether a or b
b. blocking the dopamine receptors d. neither a nor b
66. Antihistamines can be used clinically as:
a. antiemetic b. sedative c. anti-allergy d. all
67. A drug used to treat chronic alcoholism:
a. Diazepam b. Zolpidem c. Flumazenil d. Disulfiram
68. The following are pharmacological actions of benzodiazepines, EXCEPT:
a. reduction of anxiety b. sedation c. anti-emetics d. anticonvulsants
69. Alcohol can produce the following peripheral effects, EXCEPT:
a. diuresis c. loss of memory
b. dilation of the blood vessels in the skin d. stimulates secretions of gastric juices
70. All of the ff. statements about the extrapyramidal effects of antipsychotics are correct, EXEPT:
a. these are caused by the blockade of the dopamine receptors on the basal ganglia
b. can be counteracted by the administration of anticholinergic
c. if therapy is stopped, tardive dyskinesia occurs
d. haloperidol does not cause extrapyramidal effects
71. Pharmacological effects brought about by dopamine receptor blockade, EXCEPT:
a. stimulation of the vomiting center c. reduce schizophrenic symptoms
b. development of parkinsonian signs d. decrease stimulation of the CTZ
72. Which of the ff. statements is CORRECT about Loperamide?
a. it is used to control diarrhea d. it is an NSAID
b. it has analgesic property e. all
c. it enters the brain
73. Which of the ff. statements is NOT TRUE about paracetamol?
a. it lacks anti-inflammatory property
b. preferred drug to lower elevated body temperature
c. overdose can lead to hepatic injury
d. associated with Reye’s syndrome in children
74. A dissociative anesthetic agent:
a. Thiopental b. Innovar c. Ketamine d. Halothane e. Propofol
75. A drug useful in febrile seizure:
a. Diazepam b. Trimethadione c. Phenobarbital d. Valproic acid
76. A drug that reverses the effects of morphine and heroin by competitively blocking the opioid receptors:
a. methadone b. nalbuphine c. butorphanol d. naloxone
77. It refers to a change of one or more of the pharmacokinetic processes with increasing dose size:
a. disposition b. clinical pharmacokinetics c. dose dependency d. depot phase
78. The cleaning out of stomach by repeated infusion of water using rubber tube is called:
a. gastric lavage b. emesis c. anaphylaxis d. hydration
79. The process with the slowest rate constant in a system of simultaneous kinetic processes:
a. lag time b. rate limiting step c. bioequivalence d. accumulation
80. The measured preparation devised to make possible the administration of medications in prescribed or measured amounts:
a. dose size b. dosage form c. dosage regimen d. drug
81. The sum of all body regions in which the drug concentration is an instantaneous equilibrium with that in blood or plasma:
a. clearance b. accumulation c. depot phase d. central compartment
82. Loss of drug from the central compartment due to transfer to another compartment:
a. apparent partition coefficient c. disposition
b. biliary recycling d. creatinine clearance
83. The extent of protein binding is determined in vitro by the ff. mechanisms, EXCEPT:
a. ultracentrifugation c. endocytosis
b. dialysis d. electrophoresis
84. A phase I biotransformation reaction, EXCEPT:
a. methylation b. sulfoxidation c. deamination d. hydrolysis
85. A phase II biotransformation, EXCEPT:
a. methylation b. reduction c. acetylation d. conjugation
86. Non-irritating to the larynx and produces bronchiolar dilation:
a. halothane b. nitrous oxide c. desflurane d. isoflurane
87. Commonly used spinal anesthetic that is 10 times more potent than procaine:
a. cocaine b. lidocaine c. tetracaine d. procaine
88. Which of the ff. effects is associated with benzodiazepines?
a. paradoxical excitement b. ataxia c. morphine d. all of the above
89. Is a potent ultra short-acting non barbiturate hypnotic agent without analgesic properties:
a. diazepam b. etomidate c. morphine d. cocaine
90. It is an important autonomic nervous system center wherein it plays a role in the regulation of body temperature water balance, and metabolism:
a. hypothalamus b. thalamus c. diencephalons d. broca’s area
91. It triggers the ovulation of an egg from the female ovary and causes the ruptured follicle to be converted to a corpus luteum:
a. thyrotropic hormone c. luteinizing hormone
b. prolactin d. follicle-stimulating hormone
92. The standard of comparison for potency of general anesthetic agent is:
a. minimum alveolar concentration c. partition coefficient
b. solubility d. maximum vapor concentration
93. Benzodiazepines are used therapeutically for all of the ff. indications, EXCEPT:
a. panic disorder b. schizophrenia c. status epilepticus d. insomnia
94. Compounds that combine with atmospheric moisture to produce highly acidic rain, snow, air or fog:
A) Carbon dioxide B) Sulfur dioxide C) Nitrogen oxide D) A and B E) B and C
95. It is an aging process in the life cycle of lake, pond or slow moving river and stream brought about by the
accumulation of nutrients needed to sustain aquatic plants and animals accompanied by an increase in the
number of organisms:
A) Acidification B) Alkalinification C) Nitrification D) Eutrophication E) None
96. A drug for treatment of alcoholism, which acts to diminish the pleasurable effects of alcohol:
A) Naltrexone B) Antabuse C) Tranquilizers D) All E) None
97. This is a period between conception through complete delivery of the product of conception:
A) Pregnancy B) Fertilization C) Implantation D) Cleavage E) None
98. A trace mineral necessary for heme synthesis, electron transport and wound healing:
A) Copper B) Manganese C) Chromium D) Zinc E) None
99. It describes the amounts of energy, protein, minerals and vitamins needed by normal healthy individual:
A) RDA B) REA C) RAD D) RAE E) None
100. A type of malnutrition associated with inadequate mastication, digestion, absorption, transport and excretion of
nutrients:
A) Primary malnutrition B) Secondary malnutrition C) Undernutrition D) Overnutrition E) None
101. Deficiency of thiamine leads to:
A) Beri-beri B) Pellagra C) Stomatitis D) A and B E) B and C
102. A short-term expression of alcohol toxicity:
A) Cirrhosis B) Alcoholism C) Hang-over D) A and B E) B and C
103. Vitamin B deficiency caused by alcoholism produces a neurological disorder called:
A) Steven Johnson’s Syndrome D) A and B
B) Down Syndrome E) None
C) Wernicke-Korsakoff Syndrome
104. Regarding the nature of medicinally important viruses, which one of the following statements is least accurate?
A) Poliovirus is a non-enveloped virus with RNA as its genome.
B) Epstein-Barr virus is a non-enveloped virus with RNA as its genome.
C) Hepatitis B is an enveloped virus with RNA as its genome.
D) Influenza virus is an enveloped virus with RNA as its genome.
105. The following statements regarding the capsules of bacteria are correct, except:
A) Most bacterial capsules are polysaccharides and serve to protect the bacteria by inhibiting phagocytosis.
B) Bacterial capsules can vary antigenically, and as a result some bacteria have many serologic types.
C) Bacterial capsules can be purified and used in vaccines against certain bacteria, example the Pneumococcus.
D) Most gram-positive bacteria have capsules, whereas gram-negative bacteria rarely do.
106. The following statements regarding Coccidiodes immitis are correct, except:
A) It is a dimorphic fungus that grows as a mold in the soil and as spherules in the body.
B) Infection usually results from the inhalation of asexual spores (anthroconida), hence the primary site of infection is the lungs.
C) When cultured in the laboratory, the organism forms budding yeasts.
D) The most important host defense against this organism is cell-mediated immunity.
107. The following statements regarding bacterial exotoxins are correct, except:
A) They are integral parts of the cell wall.
B) They are produced by both Staphylococcus aureus and Escherichia coli.
C) They are polypeptides consisting of two functional regions, the one that binds to cell receptors and one that ha the toxic activity.
D) Treatment of some exotoxins with formaldehyde yields a toxoid, which is used as the immunogen in certain vaccines.
108. The following statements regarding the C3 component of the complement cascade are correct, except:
A) It is involved in both the classic and the alternative pathways.
B) Its C3a fragment can cause anaphylaxis by releasing histamines from mast cells.
C) Its C3b fragment binds to both IgG and surface receptors on neutrophils.
D) Its C3b fragment is part of the complex that causes lysis of gram-negative bacteria such as Neiserria.
109. Regarding the prevention of bacterial diseases by vaccines, which one of the following is least accurate?
A) Tetanus toxoid is produced by treating tetanus toxin with formalin, which inactivates its ability to cause disease
but leaves its antigenicity intact.
B) Diphtheria vaccine contains diphtheria toxoid and produces few side effects when given to children.
C) Both the pertussis vaccine and Haemophilus influenza vaccine contain inactivated whole bacteria and produce significant side effects in children.
D) The pneumococcal vaccine contains the capsular polysaccharide of many serotypes and is recommended primarily for older people.
110. This is a precipitation reaction test
A. titration of liberated nitric acid
B. direct titration with potassium permanganate
C. titration involving direct oxidation with ceric sulfate
D. dichlorophenol-indophenol titration
111. A method of assay for Vit. B12 and Calcium pantothenate is by
A. iodimetry C. microbial-turbidimetric method
B. redox D. fluorometry
112. A gram positive microorganism produces a stain that is
A. green C. colorless
B. purple D. red
113. While waiting for its release by quality control, materials are held in
A. receiving area C. finished goods warehouse
B. quarantine area D. packaging section
114. The sampling and examination of all raw materials received by the factory is a function of the
A. Documentation Section C. Materials Inspection
B. Biological Testing Laboratory D. Analytical Laboratory
115. The indicator for EDTA direct titration against CaCO3 is
A. methyl red C. methylene blue
B. hydroxynaphtol blue D. thymol blue
116. Which of the following structures involved in bacterial attachment to cell surfaces
A. flagella C. pili
B. mesosomes D. capsules
117. The X and Y factors required for growth of hemophilus influenza are contained in
A. chocolate agar C. brain heart infusion
B. thioglycolate broth D. shee blood agar
118. To measure optical activity of a sample, the instrument used is
A. flame photometer C. polarimeter
B. refractometer D. spectrometer
119. Clostridium perfringens causes
A. gas gangrene C. food poisoning
B. food infection D. flagellated organism
120. Safety or toxicity test for infusion plastic sets is conducted using
A. dogs C. white mice
B. food ingestion D. rabbits
121. The ricketsial infection is diagnosed by means of
A. lepromin C. complement fixation test
B. tuberculin test D. Weil-Felix test
122. Which of the foxlowing statements is not true about closures
A. should produce no leaks
B. should fit the tread of the container
C. should be reasonably elegant
D. should be made of plastic materials
123. Chemical analysis which determines the amount of percentage content in which the component of a substance is present is
A. quantitative C. qualitiative
B. proximate D. ultimate
124. The process of redistilling one or more times from fresh delicate drugs with small quantities of volatile principles
A. cohobation C. maceration
B. steam distillation D. reflux distillation
125. One of the following solvents is not used in the preparation of oral solutions, syrups and elixirs
A. ethylene glycol C. propylene glycol
B. alcohol USP D. purified water USP
126. Components of effervescent granules except
A. sodium carbonate C. tartaric acid
B. citric acid D. sodium bicarbonate
127. The term PSIG in reference to aerosol means
A. atmospheric pressure C. per square inch of glass
B. pounds per square inch gauge D. propellant safety in glass
128. Which of the following agents is/are available in a sublingual dosage form
A. isosorbide dinitrate C. hydrogenated ergot alkaloids (Hydergine)
B. all of these answers D.glycerin
129. The chief constituent of honey is
A. invert sugar C. levulose
B. sucrose D. pentose
130. One of the following is NOT a flavoring syrup
A. syrups rubi idea C. chloral hydrate syrup
B. chocolate syrup D. cherry syrup
131. Which of the following is NOT a method of splitting emulsions
A. centrifuging C. heat
B. filtering D. adding electrolytes
132. Often used as suppository base
A. wool fat C. lanolin
B. carbowax D. theobroma oil
133. If this method of mixing is not used, you cannot guarantee a uniform distribution of potent drugs
A. geometric dilution C. sifting
B. milling D. tumbling
134. The saline cathartics
1. act by increasing the osmotic load of the gastrointestinal tract
2. act by local irritation on the gastrointestinal tract
3. are salts of poorly absorbable
4. water soluble and are taken with large amounts of water
A. 1 and 3 C. 2,3 and 4
B. 1,3 and 4 D. 1 and 4
135. Iodine tinctures differs from iodine solution in that the tincture contains
A. acetone as vehicle C. alcohol as vehicle
B. water as solvent D. alcohol-acetone as solvent
136. One of the ff. is not used as colorant in pharmaceutical preparations
A. yellow mercuric oxide C. eyrthrocin
B. red ferric oxide D. caramel
137. Simple syrup is
A. highly unstable C. prone to microbial growth
B. none of these D. a supersaturated solution of sucrose in purified water
138. It is the uneven distribution of color in tablet surface
A. picking C. mottling
B. laminating D. capping
139. Glycogen suppositories are solidified by the use of
A. all of these C. glycerol triacetate
B. stearic acid D. sodium stearate
140. One of the following is not an emulsifying agent
A. cholesterol C. sodium sulfate
B. benzalkonium chloride D. sodium lauryl sulfate
141. A container which protects its contents from extraneous solids under normal conditions of handling and shipment is
A. tight container C. hermetic container
B. well-closed container D. well sealed container
142. Caps used to hold rubber closure in place for vials are made of
A. copper C. aluminum
B. tin coated metal D. tin
143. A liquid whose viscosity is increased when stress is applied is classified as which of the following materials
A. Newtonian C. thixotropic
B. dilatant D. plastic
144. If an acid is added to water, the solution will
A. change blue litmus to red
B. color phenolphthalein solution red
C. change red litmis to blue
D. exhibit an increase in pH
145. The characteristic ingredient in poultices
A. kaolin C. oil
B. water D. calcium carbonate
146. The Generics Act of 1988 is also known as
A. RA 3720 C. RA 6425
B. RA 5921 D. RA 6674
147. The colligative properties of a solution are related to the
A. ph C. number of ions
B. number of unionized molecules D. total no. of solute particles
148. Any distinctive combination of letters or numbers or both by which the complete history of the manufacture, control, packing and distribution of a batch or lot of a drug is determined
A. batch C. batch number
B. lot number D. kot
149. Complete wetting of a surface occurs when the contact angle between a liquid droplet and the surface is
A. 180 degrees C. 0 degrees
B. 160 degrees D. 00 degrees
150. One of the following is not used as a measure of the purity and identity of drugs
A. HLB C. melting point
B. solubility D. boiling point
