compre sample questions

COMPREHENSIVE EXAMINATION sample questions
Summative Exam 1

Instruction: Write the letter corresponding to the best answer on the answer sheet provided. USE ONLY CAPITAL LETTERS and NO ERASURES ON THE ANSWER SHEET
1 Stereoisomers that are not mirror-images of each other are called
a. Structural isomers
b. Enantionmers
c. Anomers
d. Diastereomers
e. Cis-Trans isomers
2 Based on the resonance theory, what is the direction of electron movement in a compound with the following structure: CH3CH2CH2CH=CH2NH3+:
a. towards C1
b. towards C2
c. towards C3
d. towards C4
e. towards C5
3 A given compound has the molecular formula C6H6. The compound is most likely
a. 1,3-Cyclohexadiene
b. 1-Cyclohexene
c. 1,3,5-Hexatriene
d. 1,3,5-Hexatriyne
e. Benzene
4 Which of the following compounds is most susceptible to Addition reactions?
a. Phenol
b. 2-methylbutane
c. Ethene
d. Monobromoethane
e. Ethanol
5 A carbon with four different moieties attached to it is generally called
a. Anomeric carbon
b. Carbonyl carbon
c. Chiral center
d. Carboxyl carbon
e. Epimeric carbon
6 The compound with the formula, CH3CH2COCH2CH3 is a/an
a. Ketone
b. Aldehyde
c. Alcohol
d. Ether
e. Ester

7 What is the correct chemical formula for Ethoxypropane
a. CH3CH2CH2OCH2CH3
b. CH3CH2COOCH2CH3
c. CH3CH2CH2CH2CHO
d. CH3CH2CH2COCH3
e. CH3OCH2CH2CH2CH3

8 Give the IUPAC name of the given chemical: CH3CH=CHCH2OH
a. 2-propen-1-ol
b. 2-buten-1-ol
c. 2-penten-2-ol
d. 1-but-2-enol
e. 5-propenol

9 What type of hybrid orbitals exists between carbons 3 and 4 in the chemical CH3CH=CHCH2OH
a. sp3-sp3
b. px-px
c. sp2-sp3
d. sp-sp2
e. sp-sp3

10. At therapeutic doses, what is the mechanism involved in the CNS stimulating activity of the Methylxanthines
a. Inhibition of Phosphodiesterase enzyme
b. Stimulation of the adenylyl cyclase enzyme
c. Stimulation of the Phosphodiesterase enzyme
d. Inhibition of the adenosine-1 receptors
e. Stimulation of the adenosine-1 receptors

11.Chlorpheniramine and Brompheniramine are used in OTC cold preparations for their
A. microsomal enzyme inducing effects
C. histamine blocking action
B. sympathomimetic effects
D. anticholinergic effects
12.The conversion of glutamic acid to keto acid is called
A. transamination
C. deamination
B. decarboxylation
D. hydroxylation
13.Histamine 1 receptor antagonists are most useful in treating
A. anaphylaxis
C. asthma
B. localized allergic effect
D. gastric hyperacidity
14.Forces of attraction between non polar region of molecules and biological receptor
A. hydrophobic bonds
C. Van der Waals forces
B. covalent bonds
D. hydrogen bonds
15.The term given to the functional group of an organic molecule that absorbs maximum radiation in UV or IR region is
A. carbonyl
C. chromophore
B. nitrile
D. moiety
16 Barbiturates are used as
A. antacids
C. antiseptics
B. stimulants
D. sedatives
17 The antimicrobial potency of a halogenated phenol is determined by the specific halogen and its position in the molecule. One of the most effective halogenated phenol has:
A. chlorine in the para position D. bromine in the ortho position
B. one of these E. chlorine in the meta position
C. bromine in the para position
18.The following medicinal agents are classified as natural products EXCEPT:
A. penicillin D. atropine
B. erythromycin E. morphine
C. sulfadiazine
19. Naloxone and nalorphine are similar in that they both fall into therapeutic category known as:
A. opioid antagonist D. diuretics
B. serotonin agonist E. hyperlipidemics
C. serotonin reuptake inhibitors
20 Most anticholinergic drugs act by:
A. blocking cholinergic receptors D. destroying acetylcholine
B. activating the sympathetic receptors E. none of these
C. complexing with the active sites of acetylcholine molecule
21 The IUPAC name for isopropyl alcohol which is a common constituent of “rubbing alcohol” is:
A. 1 propanol D. 2 propanol
B. 1 methyl alcohol E. propyl alcohol
C. 1 propanal
22 Functional groups on organic molecules determine
I. Pharmacologic activities
II. Chemical properties
III. Radioactivity
A. I only C. III only E. I, II, and III
B. I and II D. II and III
23 “A group of iron containing isoenzymes that activate molecular oxygen to a form capable of interacting with organic substances.” The component of microsomal mixed function oxidase system which this description is most closely associated is
A. NADPH C. Cytochrome
B. ATP D. Cytochrome P-450
24 To have useful antibacterial activity, a sulfonamide molecule must process or be capable of conversion in the body into which of the following
A. a chloride group
B. a nonsubstituted aromatic amino group
C. an alkoxy group
D. a free sulfonic acid group
E. an alkylated aromatic amino group
25 If an anesthetic agent is highly soluble in both blood and tissue, then it can be predicted that the anesthetic will produce
A. slow recovery C. rapid recovery
B. slow induction D. rapid induction
26 The chemical name for Penicillin G is
A. alpha amino-benzyl penicillin C. benzyl penicillin
B. carboxybenzyl penicillin D. phenoxymethyl penicillin
27 CH3CH2CH2X  CH3CH=CH2+HCl is an example of _____ reaction
A. rearrangement C. condensation
B. elimination D. substitution
28 How many grams of potassium citrate is needed to prepare 1 liter of 10% solution
A. 1,000 g B. 50 g C. 100 g D. 10g
29 1 qt. is equivalent to ___ml
A. 175 ml B. 1410 ml C. 236.5 ml D. 946 ml
30 A prescription calls for 6 units of a drug to be taken 3x a day. How much will the patient have taken after 7 days?
A. 126 units B. 0.12 units C. all of these D. 12.6 units
31 Give ampicillin powder 250 mg IV every 6 hours. Stock is 500 mg dissolved in 2ml. How many ml provides 250mg?
A. 5ml B. 1ml C. 3 ml D. 2 ml
32 300 mg is equivalent to______ grains
A. 4.3 gr. B. 4.9 gr. C. 4.6 gr. D. 5.0 gr.
33 How many grams of a drug are required to make 120 ml of a 25% solution?
A. 30 g B. 10 g C. 12.0 g D. 12 g
34 How many milligrams of Sodium Fluoride will provide 500ug of Flouride ion? Atomic weight: Na=23, F=19
A. 11mg B. 2.1 mg C. 10.00 mg D. 1.105 mg
35 The doctor orders 1:8000 KMnO4 compresses to the right lower leg 20 mins. qid. You will prepare a 1 quart solution from available KMnO4 crystals 1gr packets by
A. dissolving 2 packets in 1000 mL sterile water
B. dissolving 2 packets in 2000mL sterile water
C. dissolving 1 packet in 100mL sterile water
D. dissolving 1 packet in 500 mL sterile water
36 Determine whether a dose of 1gr. q. 4h is appropriate for 1 year old baby whose surface area is 0.4m2 if the given adult dose ranges from 5 to 10 gr. q. 4h.
A. the dose should be 2/5 gr.
B. the dose is appropriate C. the dose should be 4/5 gr.
D. the dose should be 0.5 gr.
37 Prepare 30% alcohol cooling sponge using an entire 1pint of 70% isopropyl rubbing alcohol
A. add 500mL distilled water to 1pt. of 70% alcohol
B. add 656.6mL distilled water to 1pt of 70% alcohol
C. add 333.3mL distilled water to 1 pt. of 70% alcohol
D. add 200mL distilled water to 1 pt. of 70% alcohol
38 Change to percent the number 1/300
A. 3% B. 33% C. 3.3% D. 1/3%
39 Apply Young’s rule to determine the minimum dose of 6 year old child weighing 25kg, if the usual Morphine Sulfate adult dose is 8 to 20 mg prn for pain.
A. give 2.6 mg B. give 6.6 mg C. none of these D. give 5mg
40 A physician orders Meprobamate 0.2 g. How much is to be administered if the dose on hand is 400mg in each tablet:
A. do not dispense
B. give 2 tablets C. give 1 tablet
D. give ½ tablet
41 How is Pentobarbital Sodium 50 and 100mg capsules administered, when the doctor orders Nembutal iss gr. po hs prn.
A. give 1 Nembutal 100mg capsule orally every bedtime
B. give 1 Nembutal 50mg capsule orally at bedtime as required
C. give 1 Nembutal 100mg capsule orally at hour of sleep when required
D. give 1 Nembutal 50 mg and 1 Nembutal 100mg capsules at bedtime as required
42 Change 1/10% to a common fraction
A. 1/100 B. 1/10 C. 1/1000 D. 1/0.01
43 What is the dose for an 8 month old infant if the average adult dose of a drug is 250mg. Use Fried’s rule
A. 133 mg C. 13.33 mg
B. 0.13 mg D. 1.33 mg
44 A 250 ml infusion bottle contains 5.86 g of potassium chloride. How many milliequivalents of potassium chloride are present? MW of KCl is 74.6
A. 12.7 C. 78.5
B. 150 D. 20
45 How many mEq of magnesium sulfate (MW 120) are represented in a 5 ml dose of 5% w/v magnesium sulfate solution
A. 4.2 C. 2.1
B. 2.5 D. 3.0
46 An IV solution contains 0.2% succinylcholine chloride in sodium chloride injection. At what flow rate should a 500 ml infusion be administered to provide 2.5 mg of the drug per minute
A. 1.20 ml/min C. 1.35 ml/min
B. 1.15 ml/min D. 1.25 ml/min
47 A physician orders a 2g vial cephalothin sodium to be added to 500 ml of D5W. If the administration rate is 125 ml/hour, how many milligrams of cephalothin sodium will a patient receive per minute
A. 7.5 C.9.2
B. 8.3 D. 2.3
48 How many ml of a syrup having a specific gravity of 1.350 should be mixed with 3000 ml of a syrup having a specific gravity of 1.250 to obtain a product having a specific gravity of 1.310
A. 3500 ml C. 4600 ml
B. 4500 ml D. 5500 ml
49 If 800g of a 5% coal tar ointment is mixed with 1200 g of a 10% coal tar ointment, what is the concentration of coal tar in the finished product
A. 8.5% C. 8%
B. 9.5% D. 9%
50 An elixir is to contain 250 mg of an alkaloid in each tsp. dose. How many gm of the alkaloid will be required to prepare 5 liters of the elixirs
A. 0.25 g C. 250 g
B. 25 g D. 2.5 g
51 A prescription calls for 300,000 units of Penicillin G Potassium to be added to 500 ml of D5W. The directions on the 1,000,000 unit package state that if 1.6 ml of solvent are added the reconstituted solution will measure 2 ml. How many ml of the reconstituted solution must be withdrawn and added to the D5W
A. 0.6 ml C. 0.7 ml
B. 0.2 ml D. 0.4 ml
52 Proof spirit is an aqueous solution containing ____ proof of absolute alcohol
A. 40% C. 100%
B. 50% D. 70%
53 Twelve (12) bottles of 100-tablet multivitamins cost Php 3,000 when bought on a promotional deal. If the tablets sell for Php 450 per bottle, what percent of gross profit is realized on the selling price
A. 45% C. 35.44%
B. 40.44% D. 44.44%
54 Monosaccharides most rapidly absorbed from the small intestines is
A. galactose C. mannose
B. glucose D. fructose
55 Fixed oil obtained from cocus nucifera
A. corn oil C. persic oil
B. coconut oil D. castor oil
56 The main center of the biosynthesis of nucleic acid
A. cytoplasm C. golgi apparatus
B. nucleus D. lysosome
57 The most powerful glycoside from digitalis
A. digitalin C. lanatoside
B. digitonin D. digitoxin
58 The purity of a drug depends upon the ____ of foreign matters
A. quantity C. abundance
B. absence D. presence
59 Methyl morphine is also known as
A. morphine C. codeine
B. papaverine D. heroin
60 Energy supplied by one gram of carbohydrate is about ___kcal
A. four C. ten
B. six D. two
61 Protein digestion starts in the
A. intestines C. pancreas
B. stomach D. mouth
62 Dried and purified latex of the fruit of Carica papaya
A. bromelain C. pepsin
B. papain D. pectin
63 Proteins are precipitated by the following except
A. alcohol C. water
B. salts and heavy metals D. inorganic salts
64 Coloring pigment
A. heparin C. cytochrome
B. keratin D. melanin
65 Following are carbohydrate enzyme EXCEPT
A. sucrase C. maltase
B. lactase D. lipase
66 Most alkaloids are insoluble in
A. alcohol C. water
B. ether D. oil
67 Biochemical function of hemoglobin
A. regulatory C. oxygen transport
B. defense D. structural
68 Percentage of alcohol used as a local anti-infective
A. 75% C. 50%
B. 70% D. 40%
69 Enzyme that catalyzes the hydrolysis of proteins
A. ptyalin C. amylopsin
B. trypsin D. steapsin
70 All of the following are ways of classifying drugs EXCEPT
A. morphology C. taxonomy
B. therapeutic class D. price
71 The non-sugar component of the glycoside
A. ketone C. genin
B. glycone D. genic
72 Carotene prevents
A. scurvy C. xerolphthalmia
B. skin diseases D. scabies
73 Volatile oil from the fresh peel of C. limon fruit
A. garlic oil C. lemon oil
B. clove oil D. peppermint oil
74 Organic acid found in fruits of Averboa balimbi which is used as bleaching agent
A. citric C. tartaric
B. malonic D. oxalic
75 An antihypertensive alkaloid
A. amygdalin C. papaverine
B. quinidine D. reserpine
76 Tannin rich plants used in medicine as astringent
A. chestnut C. apple
B. krameria D. acacia
77 The syrup form is used in the treatment of drug overdose and in certain poisoning
A. belladonna C. cinchona
B. opium D. ipecac
78 Referred to as Indian tobacco
A. belladonna C. nicotine
B. lobelia D. areca
79 Phenol obtained from thyme oil
A. carvacrol C.glycol
B. thymol D.eugenol
80 Vit B12
A. riboflavin C. thiamine
B. cyanocobalamin D. pyridoxine
81 The __ of Rauwolfia serpentine is used as antihypertensive
A. root C. leaf
B. flower D. seed
82 Following are hexose sugars, EXCEPT
A. mannose C. ribose
B. maltose D. lactose
83 The monosaccharide that is a ketohexose is
A. fructose C. dextrose
B. glucose D. lactose
84 Oxidation of fatty acids involve
A. yeast C. ADP
B. AMP D. Co-enzyme A
85 Hydrolysis of carbohydrates into simple alcohols and ketones by microorganisms
A. fermentation C. oxidation
B. acid hydrolysis D. mutation
86 Commonly referred to as marijuana or “pot”
A. Cannabis sativa C. Allium sativum
B. Piper methysticum D. Pinus palustris
87 Derived from ergosterol
A. Vit. D3 C. Ergocalciferol
B. Cholecalciferol D. Ergot
88 Proteins that provide the body with means for combating infections and poison
A. serum albumin C. antibody proteins
B. lysine D. cytochrome
89 This substance accumulates in the muscles as a result of vigorous exercise
A. glucose C. muscle glycogen
B. amino acids D. lactic acid
90 A semisynthetic sugar prepared by alkaline rearrangement of lactose
A. lactulose C. levulose
B. xylulose D. ribolose
91 The reserve carbohydrate of plants is
A. cellulose C. dextran
B. dextrine D. starch
92 The most common naturally occurring sugar obtained by hydrolysis of starch
A. fructose C. glucose
B. lactose D. dextrose
93 All of the following are reduction test for sugars EXCEPT
A. Fehling’s C. Barfoed’s
B. Acrolein D. Benedict’s
94 Insulin is a/an ___ used as antidiabetic drug
A. neurotransmitter C. enzyme
B. hormone D. lipid
95 The polysaccharide that makes up the cell wall of plants
A. inulin C. levulose
B. starch D. cellulose
96 The chief end product of purine metabolism in man
A. CO C. Urea
B. Ammonia D. Uric acid
97 Choline is a constituent of:
A. lecithin B. methionine C. lard D. cholesterol
98 Which of the following is NOT actually structurally related to cholesterol:
A. Vitamin D C. adrenal cortical hormones
B. sex hormones D. Vit. A
99 The term :anaerobic phase” of glucose oxidation is used to designated series of reactions known as:
A. glycolysis B. glycogenesis C. all D. glycogenolysis
100 The sugar that produces only glucose when hydrolyzed is:
A. sucrose B. maltose C. lactose D. fructose
101 Compounds which differ in configuration only about or around one of the asymmetric C atoms are:
A. tautomers B. epimers C. enantiomorphs D. anomers
102 Which of the following is a water-soluble anti-oxidant:
A. lecithin B. ascorbyl palmitate C. alpha-tocopherol D. sodium bisulfite
103 Saturated fatty acids include:
A. all of them B. palmitic acid C. stearic acid D. caproic acid
104 Compounds possessing potentially free or free aldehydes or ketone group and two or more hydroxyl groups are called:
A. simple sugars C. carbohydrates
B. disaccharides D. none of them
105 Class of natural products with potent and diversed biological activities involved in platelet aggregation, pain and inflammation:
a. enzyme c. prostaglandins
b. hormones d. tubocurarine
106 Gotu Kola obtained from the leaves and stems of Centella asiatica used as diuretic, blood purifier, treat leprosy, body strengthener and revitalizer is locally known as:
a. takip-kuhol c. lagundi
b. sulasi d. mahogany
107 The first immunoglobulin to appear when a newly born infant begins its own antibody production:
a. IgD c. IgM
b. IgA d. IgE
108 The general test for carbohydrate based on the dehydration of sugar to furfural derivatives when the sugar is treated with concentrated, sulfuric acid producing a violet ring between two layers:
a. Fehling's test c. Benedict test
b. Hainse's test d. Molisch
109 An alkaloid which does not react with or precipitate with alkaloidal reagent is:
a. caffeine c. hyoscyamine
b. quinine d. emitine

110 Rheumatic fever is a disease which:
A. Can result from a transient bacteremia by viridans Streptococci
B. Is preceded by a group A streptococcal infection of the heart
C. Develops as a sequela to group A streptococcal infections
D. Affects the glomeruli of the kidney
111 A fungal disease which may be confused with tuberculosis because it produces pulmonary calcifications:
A. amebiasis D. Actinomycosis
B. Candidias E. Histoplasmosis
C. Blastomycosis
112 The presence of glossitis, pallor, macrocytic anemia, hyperplasia of the bone marrow, achlorhydria, atrophy of the gastric mucosa, and focal degenerative lesions of the dorsal and lateral columns of the spinal cord in a person older than middle-age suggests the individual has had a deficiency of vitamin:
A. A B. B1 C. B6 D. B12 E. C
113 Gout is an example of a disturbance in the metabolism of:
A. Calcium B. Purines C. Cholesterol D. Carbohydrates
114 Arguments against indiscriminate use of antibiotics as chemotherapeutic agents include the following, except:
A. Toxic effects of the antibiotics
B. Allergic reactions induced in patients
C. Development of drug resistance by an infectious agent
D. Secondary effects experienced due to creation of an imbalance in the normal body flora
E. The cost of medication
115 Which of the following antibiotics is effective in treating candidiasis?
A. Nystatin B. Bacitracin C. Tetracycline D. Griseofulvin E. Penicillin
116 Which of the following statements is correct regarding a patient recovered from hepatitis type B infection?
A. The virus will be excreted in the feces
B. The patient is a good candidate for blood donation
C. The patient will have protective immunity to all viral hepatitis
D. Detection of hepatitis B antigen in serum is indicative of the carrier state
117 Tetracycline antibiotics may stain children’s teeth between the ages of:
A. one month in utero and three years C. Birth and ten years
B. Six months in utero and eight years D. One and years
118 The amount of red blood cell destruction per day is best measured by the:
A. Hematocrit
B. Amount of iron excreted
C. Change in the red blood cell count
D. Amount of hemoglobin/100 ML blood
E. Amount of bile pigments excreted by the liver
119 A history of medication with which of the following drugs requires special consideration prior to general anesthesia?
A. Estrogen B. Cortisone C. Meperidine D. Phenacetin E. Diphenhydramine
120 Differential white blood cell counts in the laboratory are useful in the diagnosis of:
A. Anemia D. Eosinophilia
B. Spherocytosis E. Thrombocytopenic purpura
C. Vitamin deficiency
121 The most effective agent for the treatment of respiratory depression due to overdose of barbiturates is:
A. Oxygen D. Metrazol
B. Caffeine E. Picrotoxin
C. Coramine
122 Administration of corticosteroids is contraindicated when there is a history of:
A. Psychosis D. Diabetes mellitus
B. Peptic ulcer E. Any of the above
C. tuberculosis
123 Which of the following barbiturates, in therapeutic doses, is the longest acting?
A. Amytal D. Phenobarbital
B. Nembutal E. Pentothal
C. Secobarbital
124 Which of the following may be a feature of acromegaly
A. Crowded teeth D. Micrognathia
B. Large tongue E. Echma
C. Hypoglycemia
125 A patient is wide-eyed, very nervous with an increased systolic pressure, increased pulse rate, fine skin and hair, and loss of body weight. He is probably suffering from:
A. Diabetes B. Hyperpituitarism C.Hyperparathyroidism D. Hypothyroidism E. Hyperthyroidism
126 When rendering first aid care to a severely injured person, priority should be given to:
A. Arresting hemorrhage
B. Recognition and treatment of shock
C. Recognition of associated head injuries
D. Establishing and maintaining a patent airway
127 A patient having a white blood count of 3,000 cells per cubic millimeter would be said to have:
A. Leukemia C. Leukopenia
B. Leukolysis D. Leukocytosis
128 What elements interfere with the activity of tetracycline?
A. Mg and Na C. Na and K
B. Mg and Ca D. Ca and B1
129 The characteristic lesion of herpes virus infections on the skin or mucous membrane is:
A. Necrosis D. Hyperkeratosis
B. Tumefaction E. Vesicle
C. Abscess
130 Which of the following has been determined to be the most cariogenic carbohydrate?
A. Starch D. Glycogen
B. Sucrose E. Dextranase
C. Glucose
131 Pernicious anemia is usually associated with:
A. Iron deficiency D. Microcytic anemia
B. Glossitis E. Gastric hyperacidity
C. Blue sclera
132 Administration of which of the following drugs would be contraindicated in patients with allergic bronchial asthma:
A. Atropine D. Propranolol
B. Methacholine E. Phentolamine
C. d-Tubocurarine
133 Which of the following antibiotics is most likely to cause depression of the bone marrow?
A. Streptomycin D. Penicillin G
B. Tetracycline E. Chloramphenicol
C. Amophotericin B
134 Which of the following drugs would be useful in treating the dermatologic manifestations of an allergic response?
A. Diazepam D. Atropine
B. Phenoxybenzamine E. Hexylresorcinol
C. Chlorpheniramine
135 Which of the following drug classes has been definitely established to be teratogenic in humans?
A. Salicylates D. Barbiturates
B. Antianginals E. Antineoplastic agents
C. Local anesthetics
136 Which of the following adverse effects is most commonly associated with administration of an intravenous barbiturate?
A. Hypotension D. Renal failure
B. Hepatic Necrosis E. Nausea and vomiting
C. Respiratory Depression
137 Which of the following classes of drugs undergoes the least change in the body?
A. Alcohols D. Barbiturates
B. Salicylates E. Volatile anesthetics
C. Local anesthetics
138 Aplastic anemia is a serious toxic effect, which particularly occurs after a course of treatment with which of the following antibiotics?
A. Penicillin D. Tetracycline
B. Lincomycin E. Chlortetracycline
C. Chloramphenicol
139 Which of the following types of drug responses is least predictable in occurrence?
A. Side effect D. Idiosyncrasy
B. Tachyphylaxis E. Therapeutic action
C. Overdosage toxicity
140 Which one of the following is not considered an epinephrine use?
A. Control of local hemorrhage D. Use in allergic disorders
B. Decongestant E. Reduction of migraine episode
C. Use in combination with local anesthetics
141 The organs most prominently affected by B-blockers are:
A. Cardiovascular and CNS D. Heart and Bronchi
B. Stomach and kidney E. Liver and skin
C. Stomach and kidney
142 The responses of which one of the following drugs should be monitored when it is used simultaneously with propranolol?
A. Digoxin C. Chlorothiazide
B. Quinidine D. Insulin
143 In the selection of a B-blocker, which of the following is not a dominating factor?
A. The patient’s disease state
B. The cost of medication
C. The desirable pharmacokinetic effect of the drug
D. The most recently marketed drug
E. The desirable pharmacologic effect
144 Hypertensive crisis in a patient with a history of CHF, which one of the following agents should be the drug of first choice?
A. Diazoxide C. Hydralazine
B. Nitroprusside D. Trimethaphen
145 A diuretic specifically useful to induce diuresis in cases of poisoning is:
A. Hydrochlorothiazide C. Chlorthalidone
B. Triamterene D. Mannitol
146 A diuretic which could be used in patients with hypersensitivity to sulfonamide is:
A. Hydrochlorothiazide C. Ethacrynic acid
B. Furosemide D. Spironolactone
147 Which of the following groups of drugs does not aggravate congestive heart failure?
A. Estrogen C. Beta-blocking agents
B. Cardiac glycosides D. Corticosteroids
148 Which one of the following may increase the insulin requirements?
A. Increased physical activity C. Pregnancy
B. Increased food intake D. Acute infections
149 Which one of the following agents can be used QID/OD?
A. Ibuprofen B. Indomethacin C. Tolmetin D. Piroxicam
150 Which one of the following is not associated with rheumatoid arthritis?
A. Fatigue D. Joint swelling and pain
B. Anorexia E. Bleeding
C. Morning stiffness