compre sample questions

PHARMACEUTICAL REVIEW WITH COMPREHENSIVE EXAMINATION
Summative Exam 2
Instruction: Write the letter corresponding to the best answer on the answer sheet provided. USE ONLY CAPITAL LETTERS and NO ERASURES ON THE ANSWER SHEET

1. Bentonite magma is primarily used as :
A. analgesic B. antacid C. stimulant D. suspending agent
2. Parabens are used in syrups as:
A. preservative B. buffer C. thickener D. sweetener
3. Characteristics of an ideal ointment:
A. all of these answers
B. stable, compatible with common medicaments and easily compounded
C. non-greasy and non-dehydrating
D. non irritating and water removable
4. A 30 mL aliquot was obtained from a mixture of 73% unknown solution. If the sample is diluted to 50mL, what is its final concentration?
A. 43.8% B. 39.4% C. 36.5% D. 20.5%
5. Calculate the number of kilograms of a 20% w/w solution which can be made from a kilogram of solute:
A. 5.0 B. 5000 C. 0.5 D. 50.0
6. Alcohol contained in rubbing alcohol that are properly sold in the market:
A. butyl B. ethyl C. propyl D. isopropyl
7. The only source of Sodium Chloride is in the form of tablets, each containing 3.0g. How many tablets should be used in preparing 3000 liters of a solution of such strength that 20 mL diluted to 100 mL with water will yield a 0.9% w/v solution? (Bonus: Answer – 45000)
A. 60,000 tabs B. 27,000 tabs C. 12,000 tabs D. 9,000 tabs
8. One of the following is not a case of adulterated drugs
A. labels are smeared and dirty
B. substandard material have been added
C. potency of drug is below label claim
D. other active components are added but not stated in the label
9. Tablet is the preferred dosage form because of
A. economy C. stability
B. precision of dosage D. all of these
10. Ringer’s Injection USP contains
1. Sodium chloride 2. Sodium lactate
3. Calcium chloride 4. Potassium chloride
A. 1 and 2
B. 1,2 and 3
C. 1,3 and 4
D. 3 and 4
11. Government office where you obtain a business permit to open a D/S, drug department as a sole proprietor
A. PRC C. BFAD
B. Bureau of Domestic Trade D. SEC
12. One of the following is not used as a flavoring syrup
A. raspberry C. cherry
B. senna D. cocoa
13. Sterilization technique in which the mechanism of action is based on the destruction of reproductive capabilities of the microorganism through lethal mutation
A. gas sterilization C. sterilization by ionizing radiation
B. lyophilization D. sterilization by filtration
14. Uniformity of blending during manufacturing to ensure equal distribution of the actives within a certain period of time is ascertained by
A. calibration C. validation of mixing time
B. weight variation test D. determination of moisture content
15. Manner of approval in which import certificate shall be signed by the Commissioner of Internal Revenue
A. facsimile C. countersigned
B. stamp D. his real original signature
16. In the case of drug recall, the responsibility for the quality of drugs in original sealed containers rests with
A. drug distributors C. drug manufacturers
B. delivery men D. Pharmacist in charge
17. Weak electrolytes are:
A. none of these C. unionized
B. completely ionized D. slightly ionized

18. The abuse of this drug is responsible for major medical and socio economic problems
A. chloral hydrate C. a and d
B. nitrous oxide D. ethanol
19. Poisoning due to anticholinesterase is best managed by the administration of
A. theophylline C. salbutamol
B. atropine D. Nifedipine
20. A selective B1 blocker
A. salbutamol C. metoprolol
B. imipramine D. ethanol
21. Conjunctival and bronchial irritation are the primary symptoms of exposure to
A. ergot C. ethylene
B. sulfur dioxide D. mercury
22. It is a cofactor in enzymatic reaction involved in phosphorylation, cholesterol and fatty acid synthesis
A. mercury C. manganese
B. molybdenum D. nickel
23. It is used in silvering of mirror and it causes metal-like gum
A. cesium C. boron
B. cadmium D. bismuth
24. One of these drugs is a narcotic analgesic
A. meperidine C. paracetamol
B. mefenamic acid D. indomethacin
25. Deferoxamine is an antidote for
A. iron C. calcium
B. methanol D. iodine
26. These are simple asphyxiants which are gases EXCEPT
A. ethyl alcohol C. nitrogen
B. methane D. none of these
27. The permeable factor involved in inflammatory condition is
A. substance P C. receptor
B. enzyme D. endorphin
28. Adverse effects of nitrates is/are
A. dizziness C. headache
B. all of these D. hypertension
29. This does not belong to the parasympathetic nervous system
A. muscarinic receptors C. nicotinic receptors
B. none of these D. alpha receptors
30. This term denotes the usual amount of exposure to a given agent that is deemed safe for a stated period of time
A. bioaccumulation C. none of these
B. risk D. threshold limit value
31. The anti-inflammatory effect of acetylsalicylic acid is due to
A. increased membrane permeability of the inflamed tissue
B. inhibition of the synthesis of prostaglandins
C. an antigen-antibody reaction
D. stimulation of endogenous hydrocortisone production
32. This metal is used in the manufacture of permanent magnets, it enhance foaming qualities of beer
A. cobalt C. magnesium
B. iron D. lead
33. Phenylbutazone is
A. an active metabolite of oxyphenbutazone
B. metabolized to oxyphenbutazone
C. an inactive metabolite oxyphenbutazone
D. excreted unchanged in the urine
34. A type of poison that causes blackening and severe corrosion in the mouth
A. nitric acid C. phenol
B. sulfuric acid D. HCl
35. Escherichia, Klebsiella and Proteus are frequently normal flora of the
A. gastrointestinal tract C. superficial skin surface
B. urinary tract D. respiratory tract
36. It can destroy both vegetative and spore bearing organism
A. incinerator C. autoclave
B. oven D. inspissator
37. The index of refraction of a volatile oil is determined by using
A. spectrophotometer C. refractometer
B. pycnometer D. polarimeter
38. Drug substances that are withheld from distribution until batch certifications from BFAD is actually received
A. antineoplastics C. antibiotics
B. all of these D. vitamins
39. The residue after incineration of a crude drug sample was 0.1152 g and the residue after treatment of the ash with diluted HCl was 0.0651g. The % of silica obtained from 7.8525 g sample is
A. 1.467% C. 0.638%
B. 0.829% D. 2.30%
40. An example of a primary packaging component is
A. bottle C. packer case
B. label D. insert
41. Which of the following gram negative rods is the leading cause of urinary tract infection in otherwise healthy individuals
A. Proteus mirabilis C. Escherichia coli
B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa D. Klebsiella pneumonia
42. What is preferred for standardization of permanganate
A. sodium oxalate C. hydrogen peroxide
B. sodium carbonate D. sodium nitrate
43. Instability will be accelerated by
A. all of these C. heat
B. temperature D. light
44. The most common manifestation of infection in the hospitalized patient
A. fever C. chills
B. cough D. myalgia
45. Plastic containers for ophthalmic or parenteral preparations are sterilized by
A. autoclaving C. ethylene blue
B. soaking in formalin D. microwave
46. Assay of NaCl in table salt by precipitation as AgCl, filtration drying and weighing the residue is classified as
A. precipitimetry C. gravimetric analysis
B. volhard method D. residual precipitimetry
47. Responsible for reducing the release of NE from sympathetic nerves: (bonus)
a. Beta 1 postsynaptic adrenergic receptor
b. Beta 2 postsynaptic adrenergic receptor
c. Alpha 1 postsynaptic adrenergic receptor
d. Alpha 2 postsynaptic adrenergic receptor
e. all
48. Produces competitive antagonism of catecholamine by blockade of alpha 1 receptors:
a. Phenoxybenzamine d. all
b. Phentolamine e. none
c. Ephedrine
49. This may occur when the electrical conduction pathways malfunction:
a. chest pain b. hypertension c. arrhythmias d. MI e. all
50. Placebo may be given:
a. as a control of specific evaluation of drugs
b. to benefit/please a patient not by any pharmacological actions but by psychological means
c. to patients with mild psychological disorders who attribute their symptoms to physical disease
d. all of these
e. none of these
51. A branch of pharmacology that deals with the study of doses:
a. Pharmacy b. Posology c. Toxicology d. Pharmacognosy
52. It refers to the fate of the drug during its sojourn through the body:
a. Pharmacokinetics b. Pharmacodynamics c. Pharmacogenetics d. Pharmacotherapeutics
53. Drugs administered by inhalation are absorbed in the:
a. small intestine b. nasal mucosa c. lungs d. stomach

54. Weak acids are reabsorbed into the bloodstream when:
a. the urinary pH is high c. the urinary pH is low
b. the urine is made alkaline d. all situations apply
55. All of the ff. are catecholamines, EXCEPT:
a. Acetylcholine b. Norepinephrine c. 5HT d. Dopamine

56. Which of the following is an inhibitory amino acid?
a. Glutamate b. Aspartate c. GABA d. none of these

57. The following situations give rise to excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP), EXCEPT:
a. Na+ conductance c. depolarization of the membrane
b. opening of Ca++ion channel d. opening of Cl- ion channel

58. The response characterized by increasing magnitude with greater concentration of unbound drug at the receptor site:
a. “graded” b. quantal c. all-or-none d. margin of safety
59. It refers to the relative concentration required to produce a given magnitude of effect:
a. affinity b. efficacy c. potency d. none of these
60. Interaction of two drugs whose opposing actions in the body tend to cancel each other’s effect:
a. noncompetitive b. chemical c. physiological d. pharmacokinetic
61. The period from the drug administration to the first visible effect is:
a. onset of action c. ceiling effect
b. duration of action d. peak time
62. Parkinson’s disease is due to:
a. excessive cholinergic activity c. deficiency of dopamine level in the brain
b. damage to the basal ganglia d. all of these
63. When MAOi is taken with tyramine containing food it can result to serious consequences such as:
a. hypertensive crisis d. a and b only
b. cerebral stroke e. all
c. insomnia
64. Meclizine is used to prevent nausea and vomiting due to:
a. vertigo b. motion sickness c. either a or b d. neither a nor b
65. Antipsychotic agents reduce hallucinations and agitation by:
a. blocking the reuptake of NE and SE c. ether a or b
b. blocking the dopamine receptors d. neither a nor b
66. Antihistamines can be used clinically as:
a. antiemetic b. sedative c. anti-allergy d. all
67. A drug used to treat chronic alcoholism:
a. Diazepam b. Zolpidem c. Flumazenil d. Disulfiram
68. The following are pharmacological actions of benzodiazepines, EXCEPT:
a. reduction of anxiety b. sedation c. anti-emetics d. anticonvulsants
69. Alcohol can produce the following peripheral effects, EXCEPT:
a. diuresis c. loss of memory
b. dilation of the blood vessels in the skin d. stimulates secretions of gastric juices
70. All of the ff. statements about the extrapyramidal effects of antipsychotics are correct, EXEPT:
a. these are caused by the blockade of the dopamine receptors on the basal ganglia
b. can be counteracted by the administration of anticholinergic
c. if therapy is stopped, tardive dyskinesia occurs
d. haloperidol does not cause extrapyramidal effects
71. Pharmacological effects brought about by dopamine receptor blockade, EXCEPT:
a. stimulation of the vomiting center c. reduce schizophrenic symptoms
b. development of parkinsonian signs d. decrease stimulation of the CTZ
72. Which of the ff. statements is CORRECT about Loperamide?
a. it is used to control diarrhea d. it is an NSAID
b. it has analgesic property e. all
c. it enters the brain
73. Which of the ff. statements is NOT TRUE about paracetamol?
a. it lacks anti-inflammatory property
b. preferred drug to lower elevated body temperature
c. overdose can lead to hepatic injury
d. associated with Reye’s syndrome in children
74. A dissociative anesthetic agent:
a. Thiopental b. Innovar c. Ketamine d. Halothane e. Propofol
75. A drug useful in febrile seizure:
a. Diazepam b. Trimethadione c. Phenobarbital d. Valproic acid
76. A drug that reverses the effects of morphine and heroin by competitively blocking the opioid receptors:
a. methadone b. nalbuphine c. butorphanol d. naloxone
77. It refers to a change of one or more of the pharmacokinetic processes with increasing dose size:
a. disposition b. clinical pharmacokinetics c. dose dependency d. depot phase
78. The cleaning out of stomach by repeated infusion of water using rubber tube is called:
a. gastric lavage b. emesis c. anaphylaxis d. hydration
79. The process with the slowest rate constant in a system of simultaneous kinetic processes:
a. lag time b. rate limiting step c. bioequivalence d. accumulation
80. The measured preparation devised to make possible the administration of medications in prescribed or measured amounts:
a. dose size b. dosage form c. dosage regimen d. drug
81. The sum of all body regions in which the drug concentration is an instantaneous equilibrium with that in blood or plasma:
a. clearance b. accumulatio c. depot phase d. central compartment
82. Loss of drug from the central compartment due to transfer to another compartment:
a. apparent partition coefficient c. disposition
b. biliary recycling d. creatinine clearance
83. The extent of protein binding is determined in vitro by the ff. mechanisms, EXCEPT:
a. ultracentrifugation c. endocytosis
b. dialysis d. electrophoresis
84. A phase I biotransformation reaction, EXCEPT:
a. methylation b. sulfoxidation c. deamination d. hydrolysis
85. A phase II biotransformation, EXCEPT:
a. methylation b. reduction c. acetylation d. conjugation
86. Non-irritating to the larynx and produces bronchiolar dilation:
a. halothane b. nitrous oxide c. desflurane d. isoflurane
87. Commonly used spinal anesthetic that is 10 times more potent than procaine:
a. cocaine b. lidocaine c. tetracaine d. procaine
88. Which of the ff. effects is associated with benzodiazepines?
a. paradoxical excitement c. morphine
b. ataxia d. all of the above
89. Is a potent ultra short-acting non barbiturate hypnotic agent without analgesic properties:
a. diazepam b. etomidate c. morphine d. cocaine
90. It is an important autonomic nervous system center wherein it plays a role in the regulation of body temperature water balance, and metabolism:
a. hypothalamus b. thalamus c. diencephalons d. broca’s area
91. It triggers the ovulation of an egg from the female ovary and causes the ruptured follicle to be converted to a corpus luteum:
a. thyrotropic hormone c. luteinizing hormone
b. prolactin d. follicle-stimulating hormone
92. The standard of comparison for potency of general anesthetic agent is:
a. minimum alveolar concentration c. partition coefficient
b. solubility d. maximum vapor concentration
93. Benzodiazepines are used therapeutically for all of the ff. indications, EXCEPT:
a. panic disorder b. schizophrenia c. status epilepticus d. insomnia
94. Compounds that combine with atmospheric moisture to produce highly acidic rain, snow, air or fog:
A) Carbon dioxide B) Sulfur dioxide C) Nitrogen oxide D) A and B E) B and C

95. It is an aging process in the life cycle of lake, pond or slow moving river and stream brought about by the
accumulation of nutrients needed to sustain aquatic plants and animals accompanied by an increase in the
number of organisms:
A) Acidification B) Alkalinification C) Nitrification D) Eutrophication E) None
96. A drug for treatment of alcoholism, which acts to diminish the pleasurable effects of alcohol:
A) Naltrexone B) Antabuse C) Tranquilizers D) All E) None
97. This is a period between conception through complete delivery of the product of conception:
A) Pregnancy B) Fertilization C) Implantation D) Cleavage E) None
98. A trace mineral necessary for heme synthesis, electron transport and wound healing:
A) Copper B) Manganese C) Chromium D) Zinc E) None
99. It describes the amounts of energy, protein, minerals and vitamins needed by normal healthy individual:
A) RDA B) REA C) RAD D) RAE E) None
100. A type of malnutrition associated with inadequate mastication, digestion, absorption, transport and excretion of
nutrients:
A) Primary malnutrition B) Secondary malnutrition C) Undernutrition D) Overnutrition E) None
101. Deficiency of thiamine leads to:
A) Beri-beri B) Pellagra C) Stomatitis D) A and B E) B and C

102. A short-term expression of alcohol toxicity:
A) Cirrhosis B) Alcoholism C) Hang-over D) A and B E) B and C


103. Vitamin B deficiency caused by alcoholism produces a neurological disorder called:
A) Steven Johnson’s Syndrome D) A and B
B) Down Syndrome E) None
C) Wernicke-Korsakoff Syndrome

104. Regarding the nature of medicinally important viruses, which one of the following statements is least accurate?
A) Poliovirus is a non-enveloped virus with RNA as its genome.
B) Epstein-Barr virus is a non-enveloped virus with RNA as its genome.
C) Hepatitis B is an enveloped virus with RNA as its genome.
D) Influenza virus is an enveloped virus with RNA as its genome.

105. The following statements regarding the capsules of bacteria are correct, except:
A) Most bacterial capsules are polysaccharides and serve to protect the bacteria by inhibiting phagocytosis.
B) Bacterial capsules can vary antigenically, and as a result some bacteria have many serologic types.
C) Bacterial capsules can be purified and used in vaccines against certain bacteria, example the Pneumococcus.
D) Most gram-positive bacteria have capsules, whereas gram-negative bacteria rarely do.

106. The following statements regarding Coccidiodes immitis are correct, except:
A) It is a dimorphic fungus that grows as a mold in the soil and as spherules in the body.
B) Infection usually results from the inhalation of asexual spores (anthroconida), hence the primary site of infection is the lungs.
C) When cultured in the laboratory, the organism forms budding yeasts.
D) The most important host defense against this organism is cell-mediated immunity.

107. The following statements regarding bacterial exotoxins are correct, except:
A) They are integral parts of the cell wall.
B) They are produced by both Staphylococcus aureus and Escherichia coli.
C) They are polypeptides consisting of two functional regions, the one that binds to cell receptors and one that ha the toxic activity.
D) Treatment of some exotoxins with formaldehyde yields a toxoid, which is used as the immunogen in certain vaccines.
108. The following statements regarding the C3 component of the complement cascade are correct, except:
A) It is involved in both the classic and the alternative pathways.
B) Its C3a fragment can cause anaphylaxis by releasing histamines from mast cells.
C) Its C3b fragment binds to both IgG and surface receptors on neutrophils.
D) Its C3b fragment is part of the complex that causes lysis of gram-negative bacteria such as Neiserria.
109. Regarding the prevention of bacterial diseases by vaccines, which one of the following is least accurate?
A) Tetanus toxoid is produced by treating tetanus toxin with formalin, which inactivates its ability to cause disease
but leaves its antigenicity intact.
B) Diphtheria vaccine contains diphtheria toxoid and produces few side effects when given to children.
C) Both the pertussis vaccine and Haemophilus influenza vaccine contain inactivated whole bacteria and produce significant side effects in children.
D) The pneumococcal vaccine contains the capsular polysaccharide of many serotypes and is recommended primarily for older people.
110. This is a precipitation reaction test
A. titration of liberated nitric acid
B. direct titration with potassium permanganate
C. titration involving direct oxidation with ceric sulfate
D. dichlorophenol-indophenol titration
111. A method of assay for Vit. B12 and Calcium pantothenate is by
A. iodimetry C. microbial-turbidimetric method
B. redox D. fluorometry
112. A gram positive microorganism produces a stain that is
A. green C. colorless
B. purple D. red
113. While waiting for its release by quality control, materials are held in
A. receiving area C. finished goods warehouse
B. quarantine area D. packaging section
114. The sampling and examination of all raw materials received by the factory is a function of the
A. Documentation Section C. Materials Inspection
B. Biological Testing Laboratory D. Analytical Laboratory
115. The indicator for EDTA direct titration against CaCO3 is
A. methyl red C. methylene blue
B. hydroxynaphtol blue D. thymol blue
116. Which of the following structures involved in bacterial attachment to cell surfaces
A. flagella C. pili
B. mesosomes D. capsules
117. The X and Y factors required for growth of hemophilus influenza are contained in
A. chocolate agar C. brain heart infusion
B. thioglycolate broth D. shee blood agar
118. To measure optical activity of a sample, the instrument used is
A. flame photometer C. polarimeter
B. refractometer D. spectrometer
119. Clostridium perfringens causes
A. gas gangrene C. food poisoning
B. food infection D. flagellated organism
120. Safety or toxicity test for infusion plastic sets is conducted using
A. dogs C. white mice
B. food ingestion D. rabbits
121. The ricketsial infection is diagnosed by means of
A. lepromin C. complement fixation test
B. tuberculin test D. Weil-Felix test
122. Which of the following statements is not true about closures
A. should produce no leaks
B. should fit the tread of the container
C. should be reasonably elegant
D. should be made of plastic materials
123. Chemical analysis which determines the amount of percentage content in which the component of a substance is present is
A. quantitative C. qualitiative
B. proximate D. ultimate

124. The process of redistilling one or more times from fresh delicate drugs with small quantities of volatile principles
A. cohobation C. maceration
B. steam distillation D. reflux distillation
125. One of the following solvents is not used in the preparation of oral solutions, syrups and elixirs
A. ethylene glycol C. propylene glycol
B. alcohol USP D. purified water USP
126. Components of effervescent granules except
A. sodium carbonate C. tartaric acid
B. citric acid D. sodium bicarbonate
127. The term PSIG in reference to aerosol means
A. atmospheric pressure C. per square inch of glass
B. pounds per square inch gauge D. propellant safety in glass
128. Which of the following agents is/are available in a sublingual dosage form
A. isosorbide dinitrate C. hydrogenated ergot alkaloids (Hydergine)
B. all of these answers D.glycerin
129. The chief constituent of honey is
A. invert sugar C. levulose
B. sucrose D. pentose
130. One of the following is NOT a flavoring syrup
A. syrups rubi idea C. chloral hydrate syrup
B. chocolate syrup D. cherry syrup
131. Which of the following is NOT a method of splitting emulsions
A. centrifuging C. heat
B. filtering D. adding electrolytes
132. Often used as suppository base
A. wool fat C. lanolin
B. carbowax D. theobroma oil
133. If this method of mixing is not used, you cannot guarantee a uniform distribution of potent drugs
A. geometric dilution C. sifting
B. milling D. tumbling
134. The saline cathartics
1. act by increasing the osmotic load of the gastrointestinal tract
2. act by local irritation on the gastrointestinal tract
3. are salts of poorly absorbable
4. water soluble and are taken with large amounts of water
A. 1 and 3 C. 2,3 and 4
B. 1,3 and 4 D. 1 and 4
135. Iodine tinctures differs from iodine solution in that the tincture contains
A. acetone as vehicle C. alcohol as vehicle
B. water as solvent D. alcohol-acetone as solvent
136. One of the ff. is not used as colorant in pharmaceutical preparations
A. yellow mercuric oxide C. eyrthrocin
B. red ferric oxide D. caramel
137. Simple syrup is
A. highly unstable C. prone to microbial growth
B. none of these D. a supersaturated solution of sucrose in purified water
138. It is the uneven distribution of color in tablet surface
A. picking C. mottling
B. laminating D. capping
139. Glycogen suppositories are solidified by the use of
A. all of these C. glycerol triacetate
B. stearic acid D. sodium stearate
140. One of the following is not an emulsifying agent
A. cholesterol C. sodium sulfate
B. benzalkonium chloride D. sodium lauryl sulfate
141. A container which protects its contents from extraneous solids under normal conditions of handling and shipment is
A. tight container C. hermetic container
B. well-closed container D. well sealed container
142. Caps used to hold rubber closure in place for vials are made of
A. copper C. aluminum
B. tin coated metal D. tin
143. A liquid whose viscosity is increased when stress is applied is classified as which of the following materials
A. Newtonian C. thixotropic
B. dilatant D. plastic
144. If an acid is added to water, the solution will
A. change blue litmus to red
B. color phenolphthalein solution red
C. change red litmis to blue
D. exhibit an increase in pH
145. The characteristic ingredient in poultices
A. kaolin C. oil
B. water D. calcium carbonate
146. The Generics Act of 1988 is also known as
A. RA 3720 C. RA 6425
B. RA 5921 D. RA 6674
147. The colligative properties of a solution are related to the
A. ph C. number of ions
B. number of unionized molecules D. total no. of solute particles
148. Any distinctive combination of letters or numbers or both by which the complete history of the manufacture, control, packing and distribution of a batch or lot of a drug is determined
A. batch C. batch number
B. lot number D. kot
149. Complete wetting of a surface occurs when the contact angle between a liquid droplet and the surface is
A. 180 degrees C. 0 degrees
B. 160 degrees D. 00 degrees
150. One of the following is not used as a measure of the purity and identity of drugs
A. HLB C. melting point
B. solubility D. boiling point