please print and encircle the letter which you think is correct.
PHARMACOLOGY PRE-TEST
1. What is the mechanism of action of erythromycin?
a. inhibit protein synthesis c. inhibit the synthesis of bacterial cell wall
b. prevent PABA to form folic acid d. alter cell membrane permeability
2. What is the mechanism of action of nystatin?
a. inhibit protein synthesis c. inhibit ergosterol function
b. inhibit cell wall synthesis d. inhibit protease
3. What is the mechanism of action of isoniazid:
a. inhibit protein synthesis c. inhibit ergosterol function
b. inhibit viral polymerase d. inhibit mycolic acid synthesis
4. What is the therapeutic classification of Niclosamide:
a. antibiotic c. anthelmintic agent
b. antiprotozoal agent d. antiviral agent
5. What is the therapeutic classification of Quinine?
a. antituberculotic agent c. antileprotic agent
b. antimalarial agent d. antistreptococcal agent
6. A patient is being treated with chloramphenicol. Which alteration in warfarin dosage is indicated?
a. a decrease because its metabolism has been inhibited
b. a decrease because its excretion has been reduced
c. an increase because its GIT absorption has been impaired
d. an increase because its metabolism has been stimulated
7. Displacement of a drug from plasma binding sites would usually be expected to:
a. decrease tissue levels of the drug
b. increase tissue levels of the drug
c. decrease the volume of distribution of the drug
d. decrease the metabolism of the drug
8. Which steroid is widely used in cancer management?
a. prednisolone b. prednisone c. both d. none of the above
9. Which of the following is/are the effect/s of morphine:
a. respiratory depression b. analgesia c. pin-point pupils d. AOTA
10. Which of the following is a long-acting anti-diabetic agent:
a. Crystalline Zinc Insulin c. Lente Insulin
b. Semi-lente insulin suspension d. Ultralente insulin
11. Which of the following is/are antidote/s for morphine poisoning:
a. naloxone b. naltrexone c.both a&b d. NOTA
12. The following effect/s of histamines are mediated through H2 receptors, EXCEPT:
a. release of catecholamines from adrenal medulla c. cardiac stimulation (in guinea pigs)
b. increased capillary permeability d. increased gastric secretion
13. An antiviral drug used for parkinsonism which releases dopamine from storage vesicles:
a. amantidine b. selegiline c. levodopa d. pergolide
14. Isoniazid may produce peripheral neuropathy which can be prevented by the administration of:
a. Niacin b. Pyridoxine c. Cyanocobalamin d. Folate
15. A Phenobarbital derivative which is used in combination therapy for certain types of epilepsy:
a. Pentothal b. Carbamazepine c. Primidone d. Phenytoin
16. Which of the following agents should not be given to neonates?
a. Cephalexin b. Ampicillin c. Erythromycin d. Sulfamethoxazole
17. The trophic hormone that controls thyroid function is _______:
a. TSH b. T4 c. T3 d. all of the above
18. Which of the following penicillins is penicillinase-resistant?
a. Ampicillin b. Amoxicillin c. Piperacillin d. Cloxacillin
19. Aminophylline is a salt of which of the following agents?
a. Theophylline b. Doxofylline c. Pentoxyfylline d. caffeine
20. Inhibition of carbonic anhydrase enzyme may be therapeutically useful for which of the following purposes?
I. Induce diuresis III. To treat glaucoma
II. To prevent acute mountain sickness
a. I only d. III only
b. I and III e. I, II, and III
c. II and III
21. The drug of choice for status epilepticus in children:
a. Phenobarbital c. Lorazepam
b. Diazepam d. Phenytoin
22. Among the following, which is the primary action of heparin responsible for its anticoagulant effect?
a. decreased prothrombin formation in the liver c. activation of plasma antithrombin III
b. decreased formation of fibrinogen d. decreased aggregation of platelets
23. Which of the following is/are considered as uricosuric agents?
I. Penicillimane III. Sulfinpyrazone
II. Probenecid
a. I only d. III only
b. I and III e. I, II, and III
c. II and III
24. Which of the following drugs inhibits the enzyme cyclooxygenase?
a. Aspirin b. Phenelzine c. Captopril d. Morphine
25. Which of the following drugs primarily act on the on the ascending limb of the loop of Henle to produce a diuretic effect?
I. Bumetanide III. Acetazolamide
II. Furosemide
a. I only b. I and II c. II and III d. III only e. I, II, and III
26. Which of the following is an estrogenic component of oral contraceptives?
I. Ethinyl estradiol III. Norethindrone
II. Norgestrel
a. I only b. I and II c. II and III d. III only e. I, II, and III
27. Which of the following conditions is characterized by a Vitamin B12 deficiency state?
I. Pernicious anemia III. Hepatitis
II. Hemolytic anemia
a. I only b. I and II c. II and III d. III only
e. IIII
28. Which of the following is/are fat soluble vitamins?
I. Ascorbic acid III. Ergocalciferol
II. Phytonadione
a. I only b. I and II c. II and III d. III only
e. I,II, III
29. Which of the following is/are clinical uses of Chloroquine?
I. Anti-inflammatory agent III. Anti-epileptic
II. Anti-malarial
a. I only b. I and II c. II and III d. III only
e. I,II,III
30. Which of the following tends to cause black, tarry stools?
a. magnesium sulfate d. ferrous sulfate
b. magnesium hydroxide e. castor oil
c. calcium bicarbonate
31. Which of the following is/are actions of Oxytocin?
I. Water reabsorption in the distal tubules of the nephron III. Increase strength of uterine contraction
II. Constriction of coronary blood vessels
a. I only b. I and II c. II and III d. III only
e. I, II,& III
32. Which of the following is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor?
a. Spironolactone b. Acetazolamide c. Furosemide d. Indapamide
33. Which of the following anti-TB drugs is not given to children below 6 years old due to its optic neuritis side effect?
a. PZA b. Ethambutol c. Rifampicin c. Streptomycin e. Isoniazid
34. Which of the following is an antidote for heparin overdosage
a. Phytonadione/Vitamin K b. Protamine sulfate c. BAL d. Activated charcoal
35. Which of the following is a K+-H+-ATPase pump inhibitor
a. Ranitidine b. Misoprostol c. Lansoprazole d. Pirenzepine
36. Which of the following is a non-selective beta antagonist, it blocks both beta 1 and beta 2 receptors:
a. atenolol b. propranolol c. acebutolol d. metoprolol
37. Which of the following drugs produce/s reflex increase in sympathetic activity and tachycardia as side effects?
I. Nitroglycerin III. Minoxidil
II. Hydralazine
a. I only b. I and II c. II and III d. III only
e. I, II,& III
38. Which of the following drugs can be used effectively to alleviate postpartum breast engorgement in patients who are breastfeeding their infants?
a. oxytocin d. vasopressin
b. estrogen e. ergonovine
c. progesterone
39. Which of the following insulin preparation can be given IV?
I. Isophane Insulin III. Regular insulin
II. Ultralente insulin
a. I only b. I and II c. II and III d. III only
e. I, II, and III
40. Megaloblastic anemia can develop as consequence of prolonged therapy with which of the following?
I. Phenytoin III. Phenobarbital
II. Primidone
a. I only b. I and II c. II and III d. III only e. I, II, and III
41. By what route of administration is the systemic side effects of corticosteroids expected to be reduced?
a. IV b. oral c. inhalation d. subcutaneous e. rectal
42. Toxicity lithium salt is enhanced by thiazide diuretics due to _____
a. Depletion of sodium ions c. Increased solubility of lithium salts
b. Depletion of potassium ions d. direct drug interaction
43. Which of the following drugs may cause an increase in the anticoagulant effect of warfarin?
a. acute alcohol intoxication d. chronic alcohol ingestion
b. griseofulvin e. glutethimide
c. rifampicin
44. Which of the following is the richest source of vitamin K?
a. green leafy vegetables c. citrus fruits
b. organ meats d. rice polishings
45. What is the most specific drug therapy for neostigmine-induced diarrhea?
a. methysergide d. calcium carbonate
b. cholestyramine e. kaolin with pectin
c. tincture of belladonna
46. Which of the following is/are useful treatment/s of carbon monoxide poisoning?
I . 100% oxygen III. Oxygen + Helium
I. hyperbaric oxygen
a. I only b. I and II c. II and III d. III only e. I, II, and III
47. Metabolic acidosis is a limiting complication in the use of which of the following diuretics?
a. hydrochlorothiazide d. acetazolamide
b. mannitol e. ethacrynic acid
c. furosemide
48. Metabolic alkalosis is likely to enhance digitalis toxicity because it is often associated with:
a. Hypokalemia d. Increased tissue magnesium
b. Hypovolemia e. Increased tissue potassium
c. Hypermagnesemia
49. For the emergency treatment of anaphylactic shock, one should administer:
a. aminophylline d. disodium chromoglycate
b. diphenhydramine e. isoproterenol
c. epinephrine
50. Which of the following is a fibronolytic drug
a. Streptomycin b. Streptokinase c. Sulfinpyrazone d. Aspirin
51. Which of the following is/are pharmacologic action/s of calcium channel blockers?
I. Vasodilation due to the blockade of calcium and reduction of intracellular calcium
II. Decrease coronary vascular resistance
III. Increase coronary blood flow
a. I only b. I and II c. II and III d. III only e. I, II, and III
52. Which of the following effects is/are consistent with the systemic use of the drug Clonidine?
Initial transient increase in blood pressure
“First-dose” phenomenon
Lowering of the blood pressure
a. I only
b. I and II
c. III only d. I and III
e. I, II, and III
53. In terms of mechanism of action, which of the following drugs most closely resembles that of Clonidine?
a. Phenylephrine
b. Reserpine
c. Guanethidine d. Methyldopa
e. Amlodipine
54. All the known NSAIDs are weak acids. Which of the following drugs is the only exception?
a. Piroxicam
b. Sulindac
c. Nabumetone d. Ketorolac
e. Tolmetin
55. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Mefenamic acid, a popular NSAID?
I. It is more toxic than Aspirin
II. The drug should not be used for more than 1 week
III. It should not be given to children
a.I only
b.II only
c.I and III e. II and III
d. I, II, and III
56. What is the most important toxicity associated with Pyrazolone derivatives like Phenylbutazone which necessitated the withdrawal of a number of these drugs from the market?
a. Hepatotoxicity
b. Hematologic toxicities
c. Nephrotoxicity d. Gastric ulceration
e. Stevens-Johnson syndrome
57. Which of the following NSAIDs is most useful as an analgesic and has been used successfully to replace morphine in some situations involving mild to moderate postsurgical pain? When used with an opioid, it may decrease the opioid requirement by as much as 25-50%.
a. Naproxen
b. Ketorolac
c. Tenoxicam d. Diclofenac
e. Mefenamic acid
58. What is the primary advantage of drugs like Celecoxib and Etericoxib?
a. Less incidence of gastric irritation or ulceration
b. Less incidence of nephrotoxicity
c. Less incidence of hematologic toxicities d. Minimal risk of causing worsening of hypertension
e. Less likelihood of inhibiting platelet aggregation
59. A number of drugs classified as specific COX-2 inhibitors like Rofecoxib (Vioxx) have been withdrawn from the market or are marketed with “black box” warning. What is the primary reason for such actions to be taken against these drugs?
a. They are associated with severe agranulocytosis
b. They cause severe irreversible hepatic necrosis
c. They increase the risk of bleeding in patient on warfarin d. They increase the risk of thrombosis and cardiac deaths
e. They cause worsening of DM and hypertension
60. Which of the following agents is currently used as the first-line DMARDs in the management of Rheumatoid Arthritis?
a. Hydroxychloroquine
b. Auranofin
c. Penicillamine d. Azathioprine
e. Methotrexate
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